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Home » IAS Previous Year Test Papers » IAS PA Examination Paper

IAS Previous Year Test Papers

Public Administration - 2000 (Preliminary Examination)


Time Allowed: Two Hours                                                                 Maximum Marks: 300

Which one of the following pairs of authors held the view that 'A theory of public administration means in our time a theory of politics also'?
(a) John Gaus and Dwight Waldo                                          
(b) Dwight Waldo and L. D. White
(c) Dwight Waldo and Herbert A. Simon
(d) Herbert A. Simon and L. D. White

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2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
     List I                                            List II
A. Managerial Choice                     1. Chris Argyris
B. Organisation and Innovation        2. Rensis Likert
C. New Patterns of Management    3. Michel Crozier
D. The Bureaucratic Phenomenon   4. Frederick Herzberg
     A     B     C    D        A     B     C    D
(a) 1     4      3     2   (b) 1      4      2    3
(c) 4     1      2     3   (d) 4      1      3    2

3. Consider the following statements :
Public administrationists used both 'carrot' and 'stick' to remain within Political Science and underline
1. public policy-making process
2. prospect of developing it as pure science
3. cultivation of engineering mentality
4. epistemological benefits of both Political Science and Public Administration
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 4             (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4             (d) 1, 3 and 4

4. The policy view of Public Administration is
(a) a narrow view of the scope of Public Administration
(b) the end of Wilsonian dichotomy
(c) the view of Henry Fayol
(d) the beginning of New Public Administration

5. The view that there ought to be greater emphasis on normative concerns in Public Administration is held by
(a) Fred Riggs                (b) H. A. Simon
(c) Frank Marini             (d) Ferrel Heady

6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
        List I                                                          List II
      (Book)                                                       (Author)
A. The Administrative State                           1. Max Weber
B . The Golden Book of Administration         2. Albrow Mortin
C. Organisation and Management                  3. Dwight Waldo
D. . Bureaucracy                                           4. Seckler Hudson
                                                                     5. Lyndall F. Urwick
     A      B     C      D          A      B     C    D
(a) 3       5      4      2     (b) 3       5      1    4
(c) 1       3      4      2     (d) 1       3       5   4

7. Which of the following statements regarding the two conferences-Minnowbrook I (1968) and Minnowbrook II(1988), is  correct ?
(a) The former was more pragmatic and less radical in thought
(b) The former was concerned with social equity and later was not
(c) Both the conferences reaffirmed democratic values with special focus on ethics, accountability and administrative leadership
(d) Both the conferences highlighted the debate between normative and behaviouralist perspectives with emphasis on epistemological questions

8. Under proper conditions, the average human being teams not only to accept but to seek responsibility. This view has been eked by
(a) Chris Argyris              (b) Frederick Herzberg
(c) Abraham Maslow       (d) Douglas McGregor

9. Consider the following statements:
1. The evolution of Public Administration as an academic discipline was accelerated by socio-psychological insights in . the thirties.
2. Chester Barnard was a great classical thinker.
3. Behaviouralism was a natural consequence of socio-psychological inquests.
4. New Public Administration stresses on scientific method of study.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3        (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3            (d) 2 and 4

10. Consider the following developments :
1. End of politics-Public Administration dichotomy
2. Questioning of subjectivity in administrative decision making
3. Critique of administrative State
4. Rawl's contribution to justice
Which of these developments led to emphasis on ethics in Public Administration ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3             (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4             (d) 2 and 4

11. Consider the following :
1. Functional foremanship            2. Unity of command
3. Centralisation                          4. Time and motion study
Which of these are associated with Scientific Management Movement ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3            (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3                (d) 1 and 4

12. The principles of Scientific management developed by F W. Taylor DID NOT include ?
(a) scientific selection and training
(b) division of responsibility
(c) esprit de corps 
(d) mental revolution

13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
       List I                              List II
A. Max Weber           1. In developing countries bureaucracy also performs political roles
B. Laski                      2. Bureaucracy faces similar development conflicts as exist in the society
C. F. Riggs                 3. Bureaucracy is the most rational form of organisation 
D. S. N. Eisenstadt     4. Bureaucracy is a threat to democratic government
    A       B     C     D        A     B     C     D
(a) 4       3      2     1   (b) 3      4      1     2
(c) 4       3      1     2   (d) 3      4       2    1

14. Consider the following factors :
1. The mode of operation
2. Large-scale organisation
3. A stable state and well-organised administration
4. Growth of technology
Which of these factors did Max Weber identify as those which contributed to the growth and spread of bureaucracy in modem times?
(a) 1, 2 and 4             (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3             (d) 1, 3 and 4

15. The statement, 'Bureaucracy is characterised by a passion for routine in administration, the sacrifice of flexibility to rule delay in the making of decisions and refusal to embark upon 
experiments' was made by
(a) Lord Hewart              (b) R. K. Merton
(c) Harold Laski              (d) Herbert Simon

16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
      List I                                        List II
(Critics of Weber)                  (Points of Criticism)
A. Veblen                                1. Iron law of oligarchy
B. Michels                               2. Occupational psychosis
C. Mao                                   3. Trained incapacity
D. Dewey                                4. Better Read than Expert
     A     B     C    D         A     B     C     D
(a) 3      1     4     2     (b) 1     3      4     2
(c) 1      3     2     4     (d) 3     1      2     4

17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
        List I                                             List II
A. Hawthorne Experiments               1. John Gaus
B. Mental Revolution                        2. Henry Fayol
C. Principles of Organisation             3. Roethlisberger
D. Ecological Approach                    4. F. Winslow Taylor
     A     B    C     D            A      B    C    D
(a) 4      3     1     2        (b) 4      3     2    1
(c) 3      4     1     2        (d) 3      4      2    1

18. Consider the following experiments :
1. Bank Wiring Observation Room
2. Relay Assembly Test Room
3. Mica Splitting Test Room
4. Productivity Measuring Test Room
Which of, these experiments did Mayo's research include ?
(a) 1 and 4             (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3         (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. According to Herbert A. Simon' Satisficing' refers to satisfaction, that is
(a) subjective            (b) good enough
(c) client-oriented      (d) objective

20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
           List I                                                      List II
A. Obtaining inputs from and sending            1. Cybernetic System
     outputs to the environment
B. Leading the changes in the environment     2. Adaptation
C. Modifying the course of action to              3. Synergic System
     suit the requirements of the situations 
D. Moving by the inner force                          4. Open System
     A     B    C     D         A     B     C     D
(a) 3      2     4     1     (b) 3     2      1     4
(c) 2      3     1     4     (d) 2     3       4    1

21. Consider the following features :
1. Facilitates delegation of authority
2. Provides for a channel of communication
3. Makes consensus possible
Which of these features are true of hierarchy ?
(a) 1 and 2                (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3                (d) 1, 2 and 3

22. 'Unity of Command' does not
(a) mean that one subordinate will receive only one order
(b) mean that a subordinate will have only one superior
(c) mean that all units are put under one head
(d) result into a shrinking apex of an organisation

23. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
            List I                                                              List II
A. The numbers and range of habitual                      1. Delegation
     contacts between superior and subordinate
B. Emancipation of social and individual life             2. Span of Control
     from the influence of organised religion 
C. In all organisations power tends to fall in             3. Disclericalisation
     the hands of small number of leaders,
     regardless of constitution
D. Assigning duties to subordinates                          4. Iron Law of Oligarchy
     A     B     C     D         A     B      C     D
(a) 2      3      1     4    (b) 3      2       4     1
(c) 3      2      1     4    (d) 2      3       4     1

12. The 'Acceptance' concept of authority was given by
(a) Lyndal Urwick                    (b) L. D. White
(c) Henry Fayol                        (d) Chester Barnard

25. The Integration of the several parts into an orderly whole to achieve the performance of the undertaking implies
(a) division of work             (b) coordination
(c) span of control               (d) hierarchy

26. Consider the following statements :
1. Coordination and cooperation are synonyms.
2. Coordination is of the work of subordinates by a superior officer.
3. Cooperation is inter-personal relationship between two or more similar individuals or units
4. Coordination and cooperation are not the same thing 
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2                  (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3                  (d) 2, 3 and 4

27. Consider the following situations :
1. Staff and line functions are separated
2. Authority is delegated
3. Units are interdependent
4. Work is divided among specialists
Under which of these situations does coordination become necessary ?
(a) 1 and 2              (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4              (d) 1 and 4

28. Consider the following factors :
1. Organisational policies, rules and regulations
2. Lower level of ability of subordinates
3. Hierarchical system of the organisation
4. Personality of the delegator
Which of these factors act as obstacles in delegation ?
(a) 1 and 2                (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4                (d) 3 and 4

29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
             List I                                            List II
A. Estimates Committee               1. Examination of Appropriated Accounts
B. Public Accounts                       2. Suggestion of Economies in Expenditure
C. Committee on                           3. Examination of rules made by the executive departments
     Subordinate Legislation                 under Acts passed by the Legislature   
D. Committee on Public                 4. Review of working of Public Sector Undertakings
     A     B     C     D         A     B    C     D
(a) 1      2      3     4     (b) 2     1     3     4
(c) 3      4      1     2     (d) 4      1    2     3

30. That high performing managers are humane to their subordinates and low performing managers are tough with their subordinates in order to achieve better results, came out of the experiments conducted by
(a) Elton Mayo                      (b) J. M. Pfiffner
(c) Rensis Likert                    (d) Chris Argyris


31. Which one of the following statements about the meaning of supervision is NOT correct ?
(a) It includes direction, control and inspection
(b) It includes only inspection
(c) It is a process through which the subordinates are helped about their requirements by their superiors
(d) It stands for direction of the work of others with authority

32. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
             List I                                                   List II
A. Concerned with object of the                1. Auxiliary agencies
B. Prevent the executive from taking          2. Technical staff agencies
     hasty and wrong decisions 
C. Experts in their area of work                 3. Line agencies
D. Responsible for the house-keeping        4. Staff agencies and purchasing
     A     B    C     D          A      B     C      D
(a) 4     3     2      1      (b) 3      4      1      2
(c) 3    4      2      1      (d) 4      3      1      2

33. Consider the following statements regarding Line and Staff agencies
1. Line agencies are an 'end' in themselves whereas Staff agencies are 'means' to an end
2. Line agencies issue 'orders' down the line whereas Staff agencies issue orders within their agencies
3. Line and Staff agencies are accountable to the people 
4. Line agencies are executive agencies whereas Staff agencies are advisory or consultative agencies
Which of these statements bring out the difference between Line and Staff agencies ?
(a) 1, 3 and 4         (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4         (d) 2, 3 and 4

34. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
               List I                                                List II
A. Scope for bias in decision making         1. 'Fact and Value'
B. Helps to narrow down the                     2. Incrementalism
C. Slow changes due to consensus-           3. Non-programmed
     approach in decision making
D. Socio-economic environment of an        4. MIS
     A     B     C     D        A      B     C    D
(a) 3     4      1      2   (b) 3       4      2    1
(c) 4     3      2      1   (d) 4       3      1    2

35. Which one of the following is a strategic decision ?
Decision taken by
(a) a bureaucrat on an application for a licence
(b) the Board of Directors on the introduction of new rules for changing the functioning of the production unit
(c) the Managing Director on opening a new department in the organisation
(d) the Managing Director on the transfer of an officer from the workshop to the head office

36. The odd one out of the following is
(a) Country club leadership             (b) Middle road leadership
(c) Laissez faire leadership              (d) Team leadership

37. Mr. X, an employee in an organisation, finds a notice about an increase in dearness allowance pasted on the notice board and passes on the information to everyone he meets. The exact model
of communication applied in this instance is
(a) cluster chain
(b) probability chain
(c) single-strand grapevine
(d) gossip grapevine

38. Which one of the following is NOT an element of communication ?
(a) Consistency             (b) Uniformity
(c) Rigidity                    (d) Adequacy

39. For increasing production, the Managing Director in a government company introduced health insurance with premium contributed by the company but this did not lead to an increase in production. Change however came when he made frequent visits to the workshop, reshuffled the job-schedule of the workers and reminded them of the market forces.
Whose theory of motivation has an explanation for this change?
(a) Victor H. Vroom                    (b) Frederick Herzberg
(c) Abraham Maslow                   (d) David McClelland

40. Which one of the following factors DOES NOT fall within the scope of the reinforcement theories of motivation ?
(a) Proper monetary reward
(b) Proper work environment
(c) Praise for the desired performance
(d) Reward at the moment of specific achievement

41. Consider the following statements regarding Civil Services/ Civil Servants
1. The structure of the civil service is conditioned by social realities
2. Civil servants perform the role of a change agent
3. Public perception and self-image of the civil service are contradictory
4. Civil servants always show high regard for democratic institutions
Which of these statements are true of Civil Services/Civil Servants in developing societies ?
(a) 1 and 2            (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3        (d) 2, 3 and 4

42. Consider the following statements:
1. When rank classification is accepted, candidates are appointed to a specific 'service'.
2. All public employees appointed to a 'service' are paid the same scale of pay
3. Rank classification facilitates equal pay for equal work 
4. Rank classification is not based on order of merit
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2           (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4           (d) 1 and 4

43. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of keeping a new recruit on probation is to
1. give some time to him to learn the job
2. give training to him to do his job
3. assess his suitability and aptitude for the job
4. provide opportunities to improve his qualifications
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3             (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4             (d) 1, 2 and 4

44. Consider the following statements:
Group discussions for selection of candidates are advantageous as they help in assessing a candidate's ability to
1. excel other
2. socialise with others
3. work as a member of a group/team
4. communicate effectively
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2          (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4      (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

45. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of formal disciplinary action against a civil servant ?
(a) Censure-suspension-demotion-withholding increment
(b) Censure-withholding promotion and increment reduction to a lower post-suspension
(c) Suspension-censure-withholding of promotion and increments-reduction to a lower post
(d) Censure-reduction to a lower post-suspension-with holding of promotion and increments

46. Consider the following statements:
The system of Performance Appraisal of employees
1. provides systematic judgement for purposes of promotion, salary increases, transfers, demotions, etc.
2. acts as a means of informing a subordinate as to how he is doing and where he needs to improve.
3. helps in determining the training needs of individual employees
4. facilitates a healthy dialogue between the employer and employees
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4        (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3            (d) 2, 3 and 4

47. Legislative control over administration is a matter of
(a) historical accident              (b) convention
(c) procedural compliance      (d) democratic faith

48. Consider the following statements regarding Public Accounts Committee
1. It examines the Audit Report of the CAG
2. The suggestions made by the Committee are necessarily accepted by the Government
3. It ensures the observance of the canons of financial propriety in all transactions
4. The Committee functions in a non-partisan manner 
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 3 and 4             (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2                 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

49. Which one of the following events is NOT considered to be an indication of loss of confidence of the lower house of the Parliament ?
(a) Adjournment motion is carried
(b) Vote of thanks on the President's address is not carried
(c) Cut on Money Bill is passed
(d) Censure motion is passed

50. Which one of the following is NOT a limitation of Judicial Control ?
(a) Administrative actions are of highly technical nature
(b) Judicial remedy is quite expensive
(c) Judicial process is time consuming
(d) Judiciary can by itself take cognizance of the excess of the officials

51. At present, institutions for the redressal of citizen's grievances in India include
(a) Supreme Court and the Lokpal
(b) Lokpal and the Lokayukta .
(c) Lokayukta and the Supreme Court
(d) Administrative Tribunals and the Lokpal

52. Consider the following characteristic features
1. Being run by a government department with a Minister at the top
2. Being a corporate body created by a special statute of Parliament
3. Being financed by annual appropriations from the Treasury
4. Enjoying financial autonomy and being expected to be self-supporting
Which of these are the characteristic features of a public corporation ?
(a) 1 and 2              (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4              (d) 3 and 4

53. When a company is in a position to control the management of another company, it automatically becomes a/an
(a) private limited company          (b) amalgamated company
(c) joint limited company              (d) holding company

54. Which one of the following statements about Performance Budget is NOT correct ?
(a) It operates with clearly defined objectives
(b) It lays emphasis on purposes of expenditure
(c) It is concerned with outputs and not inputs
(d) It is used for implementations of government programmes

55. Consider the following statements:
A budget is always
1. a statements of estimated income and expenditure
2. either surplus or deficit
3. bound by a time frame
4. performance-oriented
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2             (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3             (d) 1 and 4

56. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) The Railway budget and the demand for grants relating to Railways are presented to the Parliament separately
(b) Generally one demand for grant is presented in respect of each Ministry or Department
(c) The demand for grants for the Department of Telecommunications is presented to the Parliament separately
(d) The demands for grants of various Ministries include both plan and non-plan estimates of expenditure under each head

57. Which one of the following statements about 'Audit' is NOT correct ?
(a) It adopts a fault-finding approach
(b) It concerns itself with financial propriety
(c) It is concerned with adherence to rules, regulations and procedure
(d) It critically examines income, expenditure and performance

58. Consider the following statements:
Fiscal deficit in Government budget can be reduced by
1. rationalising and economising expenditure
2. cutting down inefficiency
3. improving workers' productivity
4. adopting new methods of budget-making
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3         (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4         (d) 1, 3 and 4

59. Which one of the following is NOT a primary function of the accounting system ?
(a) To reveal financial conditions of the organisation
(b) To protect those who handle funds
(c) To prevent necessary adjustments in expenditure
(d) To help auditing

60. Which one of the following Acts restricts the political activities at the State and local level civil servants in the USA ?
(a) Civil Service Act, 1883             (b) Ransteck Act, 1940
(c) First Hatch Act, 1939               (d) Second Hatch Act, 1940


61. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
          List I                                                           List II
(Forms of Local Govt.)                              (Features of Local Govt.)
A. A Weak-Mayor Council form    1. Form of urban local government mostly found in big cities
                                                          of the USA
B. Strong-Mayor Council Plan        2. Oldest form of urban local government n the USA
C. The Commission Plan                 3. Described as an outgrowth of Commission Plan
D. The Council Manager Plan          4. Affairs of the city managed by a small group of elected
     A      B     C      D           A      B     C     D
(a) 2      4       1      3       (b) 2      1      4      3
(c) 3      1       4      2       (d) 3      4      1      2

62. Consider the following trends
1. Legal-formal to behavioural
2. Normative to empirical
3. Ideographic to nomothetic
4. Non-ecological to ecological
According to Riggs, which of these are the three trends prominent in comparative Public Administration ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3          (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4          (d) 1, 2 and 4

63. In which one of the following countries was domicile qualification in recruitment to civil services first prescribed ?
(a) UK                   (b) USA
(c) France              (d) Erstwhile USSR

64. Which one of the following public corporations in the USA is NOT completely under the budgetary and administrative control of the Executive and also under the detailed review of US Congress?
(a) Panama Canal Corporation
(b) Port of New York Authority
(c) Tennessee Valley Authority
(c) Federal Crop Insurance Corporation

65. In the USA, the 'Spoils System' was discarded in favour of the 'merit principle' by the
(a) Civil Service Reform Act, 1978
(b) Pendleton Act, 1883
(c) Hatch Act, 1939
(d) Civil Service Act of 1853

66. In 1990, Gorbachev sought constitutional amendment in the meeting of the Central Committee. What was the major recommendation in this meeting ?
(a) Monopoly of the Communist Party to continue
(b) Introduction of two-party dominant system
(c) To allow multi-party political system to function
(d) To dissolve the Communist Party

67. Consider the following Committees/Commissions appointed in the post-Independence period to examine and report on local government
1. Committee of Ministers on Augmentation of Financial Resources of Urban Local Bodies
2. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
3. National Commission on Urbanisation
4. Local Finance Enquiry Committee
The correct chronological sequence in which these Committees/ Commissions were set up is
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2              (b) 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2              (d) 4, 1, 2, 3

68. Soviet Administrative and party structure were created on the principle of
(a) democratic decentralisation
(b) democratic centralism
(c) authoritarianism
(d) centralisation

69. Under the Constitution of erstwhile USSR, the official policy-making authority was vested in the
(a) Supreme Soviet
(b) Presidium
(c) Bureaucracy
(d) Communist Party

70. Which one of the following machineries was created in Britain in 1967 to examine complaints of mal-administration ?
(a) Ombudsman
(b) Whitley Council
(c) Parliamentary Commission
(d) Procurator-General

71. Which one of the following is an issue about which a Governor CANNOT make a recommendation to the President ?
(a) Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers
(b) Removal of the Judges of the High Court
(c) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
(d) Declaration of breakdown of the constitutional machinery in the State

72. In which one of the following pairs of countires are the administrative departments LEAST independent of control of the executive ?
(a) UK and France
(b) UK and USA
(c) USA and France
(d) France and former Soviet Union

73. Which one of the following is a unique feature of Ecole Nationale d'Administration of France ?
(a) Recruiting agency
(b) Recruiting-cum-training agency
(c) Policy-making agency
(d) Public grievance agency

74. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
               List I                                     List II
A. India Act, 1858                          1. All-India Federation of Provinces and Princely States
B. Indian Council Act, 1861            2. Appointment of Secretary of State for India
C. Indian Council Act, 1909            3. Beginning of representation and legislative devolution
D. Government of India                    4. Dyarchy in Provinces
     Act, 1919                                    5. Morley-Minto Reforms
     A      B    C    D          A     B    C    D
(a) 1       2     3    4     (b) 2      3     5    4
(c) 3       4     5    1     (d) 2      3     4    1

75. Consider the following statements regarding money bills:
1. They originate in Lok Sabha
2. They originate in Rajya Sabha
3. Rajya Sabha can recommend amendments
4. Both the Houses have equal power over them
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 alone               (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 alone               (d) 4 alone

76. Match List I (Provisions) with List II (Schedules of Constitution of India) and select the correct answer:
             List I                                                         List II
A. The tribal areas in the state of                       1. Second Schedule
     Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
B. All-India Services                                         2. Fifth Schedule
C. Control of Schedules Areas and                    3. Sixth Schedule
      Scheduled Tribes
D. Comptrollers and Auditor-General of India    4. Seventh Schedule
     A     B     C    D         A     B     C     D
(a) 4      3      2    1     (b) 3     4      1     2
(c) 4      3      1    2     (d) 3     4      2     1 

77. New Public Administration emphasizes 
(a) social equity
(b) lean government
(c) performance appraisal
(d) management by objectives

78. Consider the following functions
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet meetings
2. Recording decisions of the Cabinet
3. Supervising the implementation of Cabinet decisions
4. Coordinating the work of various ministries
Which of these are the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat ?
(a) 1 and 2                (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

79. Consider the following functions
1. Assisting the government in policy formulation
2. Reviewing periodically the working of the National plan
3. Recommending measures for the achievement of the aims
and targets set out in the National plan
4. Assessing the material, capital and human resources of the country
Which of these are the functions of the National Development Council ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4              (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3                  (d) 2, 3 and 4

80. Which one of the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is NOT correct ?
(a) He has no direct access to the Parliament and no minister can represent him
(b) His salary and emoluments are chargeable on the Consolidated Fund of India
(c) He cannot disallow any expenditure which in his opinion violates the Constitution
(d) He has been debarred from holding any office of profit under the Union or State Governments after his retirement

81. Which one of the following was not among the recommendations of the Satish Chandra Committee ?
(a) Negative marking for objective-type test
(b) Common competitive examinations for all services
(c) Exemption from preliminary examination to those candidates who had qualified once for interview
(d) Introduction of education as an optional subject

82. Consider the following types of trainings programmes
1. Induction                     2. Pre-selection
3. Refresher                    4. Specialized
                   5. In-service
The training programmes gone through by the IAS and IPS officers include
(a) 1, 2 and 5                   (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5               (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

83. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
       List I                            List II
A. Appleby Report            1. 1944
B. Gorwala Report            2. 1951
C. Assheton Report           3. 1953
D. Fulton Report                4. 1966
     A      B     C     D         A      B     C      D
(a) 3       2     1     4     (b) 3       2      4      1
(c) 2       3     4     1     (d) 2       3      1      4

84. A Joint Public Service Commission for two or more States can be established by
(a) the concerned States
(b) an Act of Parliament
(c) the Union Public Service Commission
(d) the Government of India

85. According to which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, is the Government bound to seek the advice of the UPSC ?
(a) Article 120                  (b) Article 220
(c) Article 320                  (d) Article 420

86. Who among the following said, "There can be no doubt that the standard of administration depends upon the calibre of civil servants who are appointed to these posts ?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru                      (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel           (d) Warren Hastings

87. Which one of the following statements is NOT true ?
(a) A member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) holds office for a term of six years or until he or she attains the age of 65 years
(b) The Chairperson of UPSC is not eligible for further employment under the Government of India or Government of any State after retirement
(c) One half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office for at least 10 years either under Government of India or Government of State
(d) The Chairperson and other members of the UPSC are appointed by the Prime Minister

88. Which one of the following Committees was appointed by the UPSC in 1974 to go into the issue of recruitment and selection methods ?
(a) A. D. Gorwala Committee
(b) D. S. Kothari Committee
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Administrative Reforms

89. The Staff College at Vadodara imparts training to the recruits of the
(a) Central Secretariat Service
(b) Railway Traffic, Transportation and Accounts Service
(c) Indian Civil Accounts Service
(d) Income Tax Service

90. Consider the following statements:
The Governor of a state
1. is vested with executive power under the Constitution of India
2. is needed because of the federal structure of government
3. was to be elected according to the original Draft Constitution of India
4. is chosen only from among the categories laid down in the Constitution of India
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 4            (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3        (d) 2, 3 and 4



91. Consider the following powers / functions
1. Appointing ministers and allocating portfolios to them
2. Presiding over the meetings of the Cabinet
3. Resolving conflicts between ministers
4. Communicating with the Governor
The powers/functions of the Chief Minister of a State in India
(a) 2, 3 and 4          (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3          (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

92. The principal function of the Secretariat of a State Government is to
(a) carry on day to day administration of the State
(b) supervise the work of field agencies
(c) assist in policy formulation and its implementation
(d) manage public relations

93. Consider the following statements:
The Chief Secretary of a State
1. works as principal advisor to the Chief Minister
2. looks after all such matters which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other Secretary
3. works as advisor to the Governor during the President's Rule
4. works as Chairman of the Zonal Council by rotation 
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3          (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4              (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

94. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to
(a) facilitate policy formulation
(b) undertake policy implementation
(c) promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
(d) render auxiliary services

95. Consider the following statements:
As the custodian of law and order in the district, the District Collector is effective if he
1. adopts formal and informal measures
2. uses provocative means
3. practices good public relations
4. uses a two-way communication system
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2          (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4      (d) 2, 3 and 4

96. Which one of the following statements about the duties and responsibilities of the District Collector holds good in every State?
(a) The State Government is represented by him at the district level
(b) Upward reporting by departmental officers is done through him.
(c) Handling of crisis situations is passed on by him to departmental officers
(d) He is the hub of all development activities

97. Which one of the following does not form a part of Swarna Jayanti Village Self-Employment Scheme ?
(a) Lifting up the families living below the poverty line as the aim
(b) Rural individual poor as the focus
(c) Prior identification and selection of activities
(d) Implementation in the same manner as a project

98. Consider he following statements: 
In the post-73 rd Amendment era, there has to be decentralisation of
1. decision-making powers        2. system as a whole
3. judicial powers                      4. administrative powers
                      5. reporting requirements
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3              (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 5              (d) 3, 4 and 5

99. Consider the following objectives
1. Bringing about uniformity in the structure of local governments throughout the country
2. Ensuring regular and rational flow of funds from the State's revenue
3. Having properly elected Governments of regular intervals
4. Having single unified authority f or the city's management and development
Which of these did the 74th Amendment to the Constitution of India, try to inject into the working of urban local bodies ?
(a) 1 and 2          (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3      (d) 2, 3 and 4

100. Consider the following statements:
The pressure on the finances of urban local bodies has enormously risen during the past several years on account of
1. inelastic sources of tax revenue
2. continuous rise in population size
3. increase in the wages of municipal employees
4. increase in the cost of service provided
5. increase in developmental needs of the city
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3         (b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5     (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

Directions :- The following 20 (twenty) items consist of two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion A' and the other labelled as 'Reason R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false 
(d) A is false but R is true

101. Assertion (A) : The difference between Private and Public Administrations is
narrowing down.
Reason (R)  : Private Administration all over the world is getting more and more

102. Assertion (A) :  New Public Administration emphasized that the discipline of
public administration should shed its positivist character.
Reason (R) : Positivism is not scientific.

103. Assertion (A) : Classical theory treats organisation as a closed system.
Reason (R) : Classicists lacked behavioural analysis

104. Assertion (A) :  The quality of work in an organisation depends to some extent on the effectiveness of  control of the superior over the subordinates.
Reason (R) : A superior cannot exercise control over unlimited number of persons because the span of control is limited by the span of human attention.

105. Assertion (A) : The concepts of power and leadership have much in common and they, more or less, mean the same thing. 
Reason (R) : Power indicates coercion, authority and command but a good leader cannot always rely on these instruments along.

106. Assertion (A) : Line and Staff agencies are so inextricably intermingled in practice
that many scholars and practitioners of management do not even attempt to clarify a Line
and Staff concept.
Reason (R) : Many ministries such as Finance and Education are neither purely Line agencies nor purely Staff agencies.

107. Assertion (A) : Leadership qualities are not fixed, though they are essentially viewed
in terms of relationship between the leader and the led.
Reason (R) : Leadership depends upon the capacity to control the overchanging organisational

108. Assertion (A) : The function of communication is not just to send out a message.
Reason (R) : Communication must satisfy the receiver for moving towards the desired end.

109. Assertion (A) : Recruitment rules are generally framed by Government to provide
for competition and selection on merit through written examination and/or interviews.
Reason (R) : Subjectivity prevails in the determination of merit.

110. Assertion (A) : Some of the developing societies have realized that their country is
Reason (R) : They feel that downsizing of government would be in every one's interest.

111. Assertion (A) : Promotion in the civil service is considered as a matter of routine.
Reason (R) : Promotion can be earned through competition amongst all eligible contenders.

112. Assertion (A) : Developing societies need reforms in civil service fields.
Reason (R) : The expenditure on training and development of civil servants has been on the increase in such societies.

113. Assertion (A) : 'Fair comparison' cannot be accepted as a principle to pay public employees.
Reason (R) : Public services have many direct and indirect advantages.

114. Assertion (A) : The rule of lapse is not essential for effective financial control.
Reason (R) : The rule of lapse suffers from weaknesses relating to planning and control of expenditure.

115. Assertion (A) : Control over administration is slowly shifting from legislature to
Reason (R) : Parliament hardly finds sufficient time for detailed examination and scrutiny of expenditure and achievements.

116. Assertion (A) : When a specialist is required to do the job of a generalist, he loses
both ways.
Reason (R) : A specialist is a relative term depending upon the context.

117. Assertion (A) : The All-India Services violate the federal principle of the Constitution as well as the autonomy of States.
Reason (R) : The All-India Services officers are governed by Central Government rules and the State Governments do not have full control over them.

118. Assertion (A) :  Relationship between the civil servants and political executives at the State headquarters has to be of mutual trust, confidence and respect.
Reason (R) : Civil servants start teaming to work with politicians right from their initial postings in the field. 

119. Assertion (A) : People do want to know what is being done, why it being done and how it is being done in their district.
Reason (R) : The district administration holds a different view about transparency and accountability.

120. Assertion (A) : Rural development as a function of Government of India started 'as
a search for an alternative to iaissez faire'.
Reason (R) : The efforts of Mahatma Gandhi provided the necessary, impetus and momentum for the rural development in India.

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