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Home » IAS Previous Year Test Papers » IAS PA Examination Paper

IAS Previous Year Test Papers

Public Administration - 1999 (Prelims)


Time Allowed : 2 Hours                                                                     Maximum Marks : 300

1. Which of the following are major sources of revenue of urban local bodies ?
1. Property tax             2. Octroi
3. Sales tax                  4. Tax on vehicles
(a) 1 and 2        (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4    (d) 1, 2 and 4

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2. Match List I with List II and-select the correct answer
     List I                                          List II
A. Concept of circular            1. Blake and Mouton
human behaviour                    2. D. McGregor
B. Managerial                        3. MY Follet
C. Organizational Morale       4. A. Maslow
D. Hierarchy of needs            5. C. Barnard
      A    B    C    D          A     B    C    D
(a)  1     3     2    4    (b)   2     4     5     1
(c)  3     1     5    4    (d)   2     3     1     4

3. Which one of the following is NOT a role of civil servants in developing societies ?
(a) To actively advise the political executives
(b) To increasingly redress people grievances
(c) To participate in formulation of public policies
(d) To restrain elected representative from usurping roles which are not theirs :.

4. Which of the following are the purposes of position classification ?
1. To delineate authority.
2. To establish chain of command.
3. To provide leadership. 
4. To ensure equal status to all.
(a) 1 and 2       (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4       (d) 1 and 4

5. Which one of the following agencies is responsible for both recruitment and training of civil servants for the administrative class ?
(a) Woodrow Wilson School of Public and International Affairs, U.S.A.
(b) Ecole National d' Administration, France
(c) Civil Service College, U.K.
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, India

6. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha 
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) President of India 
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

7. The principle of anonymity flows directly from the doctrine of
(a) legal responsibility 
(b) collective responsibility
(c) ministerial responsibility
(d) professional responsibility

8. Which of the following are implied in the anonymity of civil servants ?
1. They cannot ask a member to speak up on their behalf in Parliament.
2. They cannot express their views to the Press.
3. Their decisions have to be countersigned by the Ministers concerned.
4. They keep away from Committees of Enquiry.
(a) 1 and 2         (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4         (d) 1 and 4

9. In which of the following does Position Classification facilitate personnel Administration ?
1. Recruitment           2. Promotion
3. Training                 4. Separation
(a) 1, 2 and 3       (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4       (d) 2, 3 and 4

10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
          List I (Services)                  List II (Place of Training establishment)
A. Indian Foreign Service                 1. Vadodra (Baroda)
B. Indian Police Service                    2. New Delhi
C. Railway Service                           3. Hyderabad
D. Income Tax Service                      4. Nagpur
                                                        5. Mount Abu
     A    B    C    D            A    B    C   D
(a) 2    3     4     1    (b)     2    3     1    4
(c) 3    5     1     4    (d)     3    5     4    1

11. Which one of the following DOES NOT form a part of the budget ?
(a) Review of public finance of the previous year
(b) Estimates of receipts and expenditure of the current year 
(c) The actual receipts and expenditure of the previous three years
(d) Proposals for meeting the requirements of the following requirements

12. The demands for Supplementary Grants must be presented to and passed by the House
(a) before the end of the respective financial year
(b) before the budget of the following year is passed
(c) after the withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund 
(d) after the submission of report of C.A.G.

13. While discussing a budget, the Legislature CANNOT
(a) give assent to the demand 
(b) reduce the demand
(c) refuse the demand 
(d) increase the demand

14. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairman of the
(a) Rules Committee 
(b) Committee on privileges
(c) Committee on public undertakings
(d) Committee on government assurances

15. Which one of the following is NOT related to Adjournment Motion ?
(a) The matter is framed in general terms
(b) The matter is urgent
(c) The matter is of general public interest
(d) The matter does not raise a question of privilege

16. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of the Ombudsman institution ?
(a) Being independent of the Executive and Legislature
(b) The authority to criticise all governmental agencies
(c) The practices being similar in all the countries
(d) Being recommendatory in nature,

17. Which of the following statements are correct ?
To exercise effective control over administration, the citizen is required to have
1. high level of education.
2. high degree of political consciousness.
3. the opportunity to participate.
4. some knowledge of the administrative system.
(a) 1, 2 and 3      (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4      (d) 2, 3 and 4

18. Which one of the following is NOT applicable regarding the purpose of Cut Motion ?
(a) Raising questions of urgent public importance
(b) Drawing attention to any lapse on part of administration
(c) Drawing attention to specific problems
(d) Concentration discussion on some concrete points

19. Which one of the following is NOT a measure of control exercised by the Legislature over Administration ?
(a) Asking questions          (b) Committee system
(c) Review of decision       (d) No confidence motion

20. Which one of the writs is issued by an appropriate judicial authority body to free a person who has been illegally detained ?
(a) Quo-warranto         (b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari                (d) Habeas Corpus

21. Which one of the following is true of Appropriation Act?
(a) It is the demand for grants approved by the Parliament 
(b) It applies to approval of the budget of the Parliament
(c) Authorization by the Parliament for Withdrawal of money from the consolidated fund
(d) Authorization by the Parliament for withdrawal of money from the contingency fund

22. In the U.S.A., the Independent Regulatory Commission types of organisations as widely used primarily to
(a) escape the pervasive influence of party politics in administration
(b) eradicate corruption in administration
(c) provide better services to the people
(d) off-load the burden of the government departments

23. Which of the following statements are correct ?
Members of the British Civil Service are
1. selected on the basis of general mental ability.
2. recruited at an early age.
3. non-interchangeable between public and private sectors.
4. directly responsible to the Parliament.
(a) 1, 2 and 3     (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4     (d) 1, 3 and 4

12. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The President of France has the power to dissolve the Parliament
(b) Before dissolving the Parliament, the President of France is required to consult the Presidents of the two chambers of Parliament and Prime Minister
(c) While dissolving Parliament, President of France is required to follow the advice of Prime Minister & Presidents of two chambers
(d) The President of France cannot dissolve the Parliament more than once in twelve months

25. The administrative system of France is called 'classic' because
(a) France adopted different administrative orientations
(b) French bureaucracy conforms most closely to the Weber Ian model
(c) Administrative change in France has been abrupt, drastic and frequent
(d) France has had remarkable administrative and bureaucratic continuity

26. Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding the structural features of Soviet bureaucracy ?
(a) Hierarchical structure 
(b) Division of labour
(c) Lack of political commitment
(d) Use of regulations

27. Lenin did NOT develop which one of the following as the basic principle of administration ?
(a) Democratic centralism
(b) Democratic decentralization
(c) Objectivity and concreteness 
(d) Effectiveness

28. Which one of the following does NOT represent a distinctive feature of the American Presidential Cabinet ?
(a) Political homogeneity        (b) Collective responsibility
(c) Primacy of the President   (d) Lack of agenda

29. Which one of the following is NOT true of Independent Regulatory Commissions of America?
(a) Headless institutions
(b) Fourth organ of the government
(c) Islands of autonomy 
(d) Regulatory institutions

30. Which one of the following is NOT true of British administration ?
(a) It is a product of evolution
(b) It is run by a politically committed bureaucracy
(c) It is unitary in character
(d) It is based on the common law of the land

31. Which one of the following was the main feature of Govt. of India Act 1919 ?
(a) Dyarchy in Centre 
(b) Provincial Autonomy
(c) Dyarchy in Provinces 
(d) Communal Representation

32. The `Tenure System' in the Central Services was started by
(a) Lord Macaulay 
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Ripon 
(d) Sardar Patel

33. Administrative Tribunals in India CANNOT undermine the rule of law because they
(a) dispense quick and cheap justice
(b) are manned by senior bureaucrats
(c) devise their own flexible procedures
(d) are regulated by Acts of Parliament

34. The quotation, "The new Indian Constitution establishes, indeed, a system of government which is at the most quasifederal almost revolutionary in character, a unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than the federal state with unitary features" is attributed to
(a) 1. Jennings               (b) D.D. Basu
(c) K.C. Wheare          (d) H. J. Laski

35. The creation of the office of the Lok Pal was first recommended by the
(a) National Police Commission
(b) States Reorganization Commission
(c) Administrative Reforms Commission
(d) Inter-State Council

36. Which one of the following is correct in terms of the Constitution of India ?
(a) The Prime Minister decides the allocation of portfolios among the ministers
(b) When the Prime Minister decides resigns, the Council of Ministers gets dissolved
(c) All the principal policy announcements of the government are made by the Prime Minister
(d) It shall be the duty of Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union

37. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
       List I                             List II
A. Central Secretariat     1. Principles governing grants-in-aid
B. Cabinet Secretariat     2. Formulation of policies
C. Planning                     3. Coordination of activities of various ministries
D. Finance Commission  4. Allocation of resources
    A    B    C    D          A    B    C   D
(a) 3   2     1     4    (b)   2    3     1    4
(c) 2   3     4     1    (d)   3    2     4    1

38. Which of the following functions are NOT performed by the Central Secretariat?
1. Direction, supervision and control.
2. Perspective planning.
3. Overseeing governmental decisions.
4. Secretarial assistance to the Parliament.
(a) 1 and 2        (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4    (d) 3 and 4

39. Which of the following are the difficulties in lateral communication ?
1. Lack of cooperative relationship among several officials.
2. Organisation of specialist services in the establishment.
3. Rivalry among organisation units.
4. Superior's reluctance to listen to the subordinates.
5. Physical separation of different units.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 3 and 4               (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5           (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. When the delegation goes by a climate of understanding between the superior and the subordinate, it is known as
(a) informal delegation          (b) specific delegation
(c) formal delegation             (d) general delegation

41. The NDC was set up as per
(a) the Government of India Act, 1935
(b) the recommendations of the Finance Commission
(c) the provisions of the Indian Constitution
(d) the recommendations of the Planning Commission

42. Which of the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are true ? The Report of Comptroller and Auditor General of India
1. can be considered by the joint session of both Houses of Parliament.

2. includes examination of income and expenditure of all public sector undertakings.
3. is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of the Estimates Committee.
4. constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. '
(a) 1 and 2       (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4       (d) 4 alone

43. Which of the following statements about Public Enterprises are true ?
1. Public corporation form provides for greater autonomy in management.

2. Departmental undertaking is subject to extensive legislative and executive control.
3. Government company gives greater freedom to the creator for direction and control.
4. State Roadways Transport Corporations are created under State Acts.
(a) 1, 2 and 4       (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3       (d) 2, 3 and 4

44. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
        List I (Name of Organisation)       List II (Form of organisation)
A. Indian Railways                                       1. Public Corporation
B. Central Warehousing                               2. Government company
C. State Trading Corporation                       3. Board
D. Central Water and Power Commission
     A    B    C    D           A    B    C   D
(a) 1     3     2    -     (b)    1    3     -    2
(c) 3     1     -     2 &nbspp;  (d)    3    1     2    -

45. The role of the Finance Commission in Central State fiscal relations has been undermined by the
(a) State Governments             (b) Zonal Councils
(c) Planning Commission          (d) Central government

46. The initial idea of recruitment on merit principle can be traced to the
(a) Lee Commission         (b) Macaulay Committee
(c) Islington Commission  (d) Maxwell Committee

47. Which of the following are the functions of the Union Public Service Commission ?
1. To conduct examinations for recruitment to the services of the Union.

2. To advise on matters referred to them by the President or the Governor.
3. To advise on all disciplinary matters affecting a government servant.
4. To advise on the principles to be followed in respect of promotions and transfers.
(a) 1 and 2          (b) 1, 2 and 3.
(c) 1, 3 and 4      (d) 2, 3 and 4

48. The L.B.S. National Academy of Administration provides
(a) in-service and post-selection training to a select group of Government officers
(b) structured post-selection training to a select group of Govt. officers
(c) structured training to all Govt. officers
(d) pre-entry training to all Govt. officers

49. When the problem of corruption in public services assumed serious dimensions, the Government of India appointed a high power committee under the chairmanship of
(a) Ananthaswamy Ayyangar             (b) P V Subbaiah
(c) K. Santhanam                              (d) K. Hanumanthya

50. Which of the following statements are correct ?
In democracy, a civil servant must be committed to the
1. goal of the Constitution 
2. common good
3. ruling party's ideology
4. execution of public policy
(a) 1, 3 and 4         (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3         (d) 1, 2 and 4

51. Which of the following statements are correct ?
In a Parliamentary democracy, bureaucracy can become enormously powerful because of
1. limitations of Parliamentary controls.
2. principle of ministerial responsibility.
3. judicial activism. 
4. lack of popular initiative.
(a) 1, 2 and 3      (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4      (d) 2, 3 and 4

52. Consider the following statements
The Governor of the State in India has the power to appoint
1. Judges of the High Court
2. Members of the State Public Service Commission
3. Members of the State Finance Commission
4. the Accountant General ,
Which of the statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2         (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4     (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

53. Consider the following statements
Chief Secretary of a State Government is
1. Principal adviser to the Chief Minister.
2. Secretary to the Cabinet.
3. Secretary to the Government. 
4. Head of Civil service.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3          (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4          (d) 2, 3 and 4

54. In a state directorate, the main responsibility of the directorate is related to
(a) policy making            (b) policy implementation
(c) policy evaluation        (d) policy analysis

55. In matters relating to revenue administration, the District Collector reports to the
(a) Chief Secretary 
(b) Secretary (Finance Department)
(c) Divisional Commissioner
(d) Secretary (Revenue Department)

56. The "Lakhina (Ahmednagar) Experiment" is associated with
(a) District Administration
(b) Panchayati Raj Administration
(c) Rural Development Administration
(d) Tribal Development Administration

57. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
       List I                                   List II
A. 73rd Constitutional            1. Democratic Decentralization
B. 74th Constitutional              2. State Finance Commission
C. Balwantrai Mehta               3. Municipal Councils
D. L.M. Singhvi                       4. Constitutional status to Panchayati Raj
     A     B    C    D             A     B    C    D
(a) 2      3     4    1       (b)   2      3     1    4
(c) 3      2     1    4        (d)   3     2     4    1

58. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 provides for which of the following ?
1. Municipal Committees 
2. Ward Committees

3. Committee for District Planning
4. Committee for Metropolitan Planning
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 3       (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3   (d) 2, 3 and 4

59. Which of the following statements are correct ?
 Mayor-in-Council form of urban local governance
1. ensures executive-deliberative dichotomy
2. upholds the principle of collective responsibility
3. provides a plural political executive
4. dispenses with the party system
(a) 1 and 2         (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4         (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

60. Which of the following statements are correct ?
Village Panchayats are responsible for
1. agricultural production 2. rural industrial development
3. maternity and child welfare
4. higher vocational education
(a) 1, 2 and 4         (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3         (d) 2, 3 and 4

DIRECTIONS : The following 26 items consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as `Reason R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether, the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given
below and mark your answer sheet accordingly 
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A 
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false 
(b) A is false but R is true

61. Assertion (A) : In welfare states, Public Administration touches almost all aspects of a citizen's life.
Reason (R) : The scope and importance of Public Administration increases with increasing societal complexity, specialisation and differentiation.

62. Assertion (A) : The study of public administration lacks cross-cultural concepts and principles for being able to be recognized as a science.
Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot transcend national frontiers and national experiences.

63. Assertion (A) : A more rational and integrated approach to managerial problems is needed for increasing productivity.
Reason (R) : It was mainly to find ways to raise industrial output that Taylor came up with his ideas on `Scientific Management".

64. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations theory focuses on management as a web of interpersonal relationships.
Reason (R) : Management and administration involve group effort and collective endeavors of people.

65. Assertion (A) : The Administrative Science should study facts about human behaviour without getting involved in the question of values.
Reason (R) : Before science can develop principles, it must possess concepts.

66. Assertion (A) : Behavioural Approach has limited relevance in dealing with all types of problems in administration.
Reason (R) : The complexity and variety of human nature, motivation and behaviour preclude attainment of precision.

67. Assertion (A) : According to the systems approach, an organisation is a social system and has to be studied in its totality.
Reason (R) : A system is a comprehensive and complex whole of a set of interconnected and interdependent parts.

68. Assertion (A) : Supervision involves overseeing, inspecting and directing the activities of the subordinates so that the goals of the organisation are accomplished properly.
Reason (R) : Individuals have a tendency to pay greater attention to the fulfillment of their personal goals.

69. Assertion (A) : Staff-line relations frequently produce tensions and conflicts.
Reason (R) : The line tends to be conservative about changes, yet the mission of staff is precisely that of investigating the need for change.

70. Assertion (A) : Without delegating authority, where necessary, it would be impossible for the head to carry on the entire tasks of the organization himself.
Reason (R) : The extent of delegation of authority, is not related to the size and diversity of work in an organization.

71. Assertion (A) : Successful organisation requires not only command and executive direction but also sound leadership.
Reason (R) : Leadership tends to be expressed in terms of power to command or ability to dominate.

72. Assertion (A) : Downward as well as upward messages received by middle level officials are often distorted before they are passed on.
Reason (R) : Whenever such an official receives a message which he considers incoherent, illogical or incomplete, he tries to "make sense" out of it.

73. Assertion (A) : People are induced to do their work in I the best possible manner if they are properly motivated.
Reason (R) : Fear of punishment acts as a motivator but is of a negative kind.

74. Assertion (A) : Assumptions about the nature of men enable executives to determine motivational practices.
Reason (R) : Adoption of theory 'Y' practices kills the initiative of employees.

75. Assertion (A) : Position classification in Civil Services of developing countries is a legacy of the colonial past.
Reason (R) : Rank classification in Civil Services can work only in a developed technological society.

76. Assertion (A) : The cornerstone of a public personnel system is built upon a sound recruitment policy.
Reason (R) : Open competitive examinations are answer to twin demands of democracy and good administration. 

77. Assertion (A) : Government provides for various types of training for its employees.
Reason (R) : Training enhances the efficiency of employees by improving their knowledge and skills.

78. Assertion (A) : Lok Ayuktas have been appointed in all the States of India.
Reason (R) : An independent institution is required to redress grievances of people against the actions of civil servants.

79. Assertion (A) : The salary and conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India cannot be varied to his/her disadvantage after he/she is appointed.
Reason (R) : The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a Constitutional office.

80. Assertion (A) : Estimates of income and expenditure should be on cash basis.
Reason (R) : All money that Government deals with during the current financial year should be included in estimates.

81. Assertion (A) : The American Civil Service is more specialised than British Civil Service.
Reason (R) : In the selection of civil servants, the Britishers prefer career staffing while Americans prefer programme staffing.

82. Assertion (A) : Efficiency rating is undertaken regularly in personnel management. in the U.S.A.
Reason (R) : In the U.S.A., there is greater stress on professionalization.

83. Assertion (A) : The Secretariat maybe said to be the brain-centre of the administrative body, directing and overseeing all administrative activity.
Reason (R) : The Secretariat provides the Minister with materials and expert advice for the 
formulation of policies and watches over their application once they have been formulated.

84. Assertion (A) : The strength of the State Council of Ministers has not been specified in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R) : A number of pressures operate in the determination of the strength of tire Ministry.

85. Assertion (A) : In a democracy, the functioning of bureaucracy is conditioned by the operation of party system.
Reason (R) : Where the party system is unable to produce a stable government, bureaucracy acquires a special position.

86. Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India now provides a mechanism for regular flow of funds to Panchayati Raj institutions.
Reason (R) : The Panchayati Raj institutions have been greatly handicapped in the performance of their assigned duties by paucity of funds.

87. The term "Public" in Public Administration stands for
(a) the citizens in a democracy
(b) the formally constituted government
(c) any administration having its impact on everybody
(d) the defining characteristic of a kind of administration

88. The scope of conventional public administration has been under attack from Public Choice Theorists, as they
(a) reject the idea of welfare state and services
(b) propose restrictions on bureaucratic functioning
(c) consider the market as a more efficient provider of goods and services
(d) view the politician as being in league with the bureaucrat

89. Which of the following reasons prompted Woodrow Wilson to advocate a "science of administration'?
1. The desire to straighten the paths of government.
2. The idea of making government business less un-businesslike.

3. The intention to strengthen and purify government organisation.
4. The need to raise a band of dutiful civil servants.
(a) 1 and 4       (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3   (d) 2, 3 and 4

90. The New Public Administration is a quest for
(a) ethical values and scientific analysis
(b) scientific, analysis and relevance
(c) relevance and ethical values 
(d) excellence
91. Which of the following did Herbert Simon emphasize ?
1. Valule-fact dichotomy 
2. Means-ends relationship
3. Composite decision-making
4. Illusion of final authority
(a) 1 and 2         (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3     (d) 1, 3 and 4

92. The significance of Public Administration as a discipline lies in
(a) improving government functioning
(b) developing scientific knowledge about public administration
(c) organising training programmes for the civil servants
(d) creating informal and intelligent citizenship

93. In Public Administration, which of the following type of 'efficiency' have been advocated by Peter Self ?
1. Administrative efficiency 
2. Policy efficiency
3. Service efficiency 
4. Profit making efficiency
(a) 1, 2 and 3         (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4         (d) 2, 3 and 4

94. Today, public-private distinction needs to be understood in terms of
(a) contradictory models of governance
(b) application of the unique nature of public administration
(c) complementary of the two sectors in respect of social management
(d) the distinctive profit-driven character of private management

95. Consider the following statements : Under the impact of neo-classical economic theory, "privatization" is now being suggested as new public philosophy which is oriented towards
1. down-sizing government.
2. contracting out to private agencies.
3. dis-investment in public enterprises.
4. according supremacy to the private sector.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 4       (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4   (d) 2, 3 and 4

96. Which of the following were part of recommendations of Minnibrook Conference on New Public Administration (1968)?
1. Normative and empirical approaches should be strengthened.

2. Public Administration should have independent roots. 
3. Equity' should be the concern of the administrators.
4. American Public Administration should come out of its crisis.

(a) 1 and 2         (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4     (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

97. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
               List I                                           List II
(Stages of evolution                          (Writers associated with the  stages of evolution)
   of Public Administration)                                                   
A. Political administration separation               1. Woodrow Wilson
B. Human relations                                         2. Elton Mayo
C. Science of Management                             3. Harold Lasswell
D. Policy Science                                            4. W E Willoughby
     A    B    C    D         A    B    C   D
(a) 1    2     3     4    (b)  2     1    4    3
(c) 2    1     3     4    (d)  1     2    4    3

98. Who among the following writers have NOT contributed to the doctrine of Politics-administration dichotomy ?
1. Max Weber 
2. Frank Goodnow 
3. Fred Riggs
(a) 1, 2 and 3        (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2            (d) 1 and 3

99. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
          List I                                                List II
A. Administrative Behaviours                 1. Gulick and Urwick
B. Functions of the Executive                 2. Dwight Waldo
C. Public Administration in a                  3. Herbert Simon
     Time of Turbulence
D. Papers on Science of Public              4. Chester Barnard
     A     B    C    D         A    B    C   D
(a) 3     4      2    1    (b)  4     3     2   1
(c) 3     4      1    2    (d)  4     3     1   2

100. Taylor's concept of mental revolutions stands for
(a) harmony and cooperation
(b) cooperation, harmony and restricted output
(c) restricted output and cooperation
(d) economy, cooperation and restricted output

101. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?
(a) Guardian bureaucracy Class base
(b) Caste bureaucracy Aristocratic type
(c) Patronage bureaucracy Spoils system
(d) Merit bureaucracy Career open to talent

102. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
          List I                                                   List II
A. Reconstruction of administrative           1. Normative Approach
     realities through an in depth                              
     analysis of an event
B. Study of Public Administration               2. Empirical Approach
     as is should be  
C. Study of principles underlying                3. Philosophical Approach
     administrative activities  
D. Analysis of informal networks                4. Case Method Approach
     and group relationships in the field 
     A     B     C     D        A     B     C    D
(a) 4      1      3     2   (b)  3      1     4     2
(c) 4      2      3      1  (d)  3      2      4    1

103. Which of the following are the feature's of Classical Theory ?
1. Specialisation               2. Efficiency
3. Hierarchy                     4. Leadership 
(a) 1, 2 and 3                (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4                (d) 2, 3 and 4

104. Which of the following statements regarding Behavioural approach are correct ?
1. It is more deductive than inductive.
2. It is less macro and more micro.
3. !t is inter-disciplinary in nature.
4. It is more descriptive and less empirical.
(a) 1 and 2               (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4           (d) 1, 3 and 4

105. Which one of the following is attributed to Barnard ?
(a) Science of muddling through 
(b) Bounded rationality
(c) Zone of indifference
(d) Management by integration

106. The systems approach to administrative analysis has enriched our understanding of administrative processes by focusing mainly on
(a) interpersonal relations in an organisation and human behaviour
(b) management's crucial role in efficient coordination
(c) open nature of organisation and its relationship with the environment
(d) systematic analysis of organisational structure and functioning

107. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT ?
1. Organisations are structured in a hierarchical manner.
2. In a hierarchy all positions are equal.
3. A hierarchical structure is always of the pyramid shape.
4. When the organisation grows bottom shrinks.
(a) 1 and 2        (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4        (d) 3 and 4

108. Unity of command does NOT mean
(a) All the units of an organisation should be integrated under the authority of one head
(b) The number of subordinates who can be effectively supervised by an officer
(c) There should be one person and not a body of persons at the apex of an organisation,
(d) An individual employer should not be subject to the orders of more than immediate supervisors

109. The characteristic feature of the post-war period (19481970) in the evolution of the study of Public Administration has been described as an era, of
(a) re-discovery of principles 
(b) return to mother science
(c) crisis of identity
(d) de-emphasis of administration

110. Authority should be commensurate with
(a) degree of coordination             (b) position in the hierarchy
(c) degree of responsibility             (d) degree of supervision

111. Which one of the following if NOT indicative of coordination ?
(a) Collective action of one person with others ' ,
(b) Cooperation and team-work among the employees
(c) Inter-relating various parts of the work
(d) Integration of several parts into an orderly whole

112. In which of the following situations does the need for coordination arise ?
1. Overlap of efforts                        2. Duplication of efforts
3. Neglect of personal interests        4. Conflicts in interests
(a) 1, 2 and 3         (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4         (d) 1, 3 and 4

113. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
       List I                        List II
A. Line agency              1. Authority of knowledge
B. Staff agency              2. Authority of action
C. Auxiliary agency        3. Housekeeping
D. Development agency 4. Planning and regulation
     A    B    C    D         A    B    C   D
(a) 1     2     3    4    (b)  2    1     3    4
(c) 2     1     4    3    (d)   1    2     4   3

114. Which of the following statements about decisions making are true ?
1. It is a plural activity.
2. It is largely based on total rationality.
3. Personal values influence its process.
4. It allows greater role to the administrative person.
(a) 1 and 2         (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4     (d) 2, 3 and 4

115. Who among the following said that leadership and authority are plural because of involvement of many people ?
(a) Ordway Tead              (b) Chester Bernard
(c) Mary Parker Follett     (d) M. E. Dimock

116. Mc Gregor's Theory Y provides for which of the following?
1. Shared responsibility.
2. Imposed direction and control.
3. Self direction and self control.
(a) 2 alone        (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 alone        (d)  l and 3

117. Which one of the following is NOT one of the types of leadership according to the concept of Max Weber ?
(a) Charismatic                (b) Traditional
(c) Bureaucratic               (d) Rational-Legal

118. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
          List I (Leadership)                                   List II (Theory)
A. Personal qualities which a leader has             1. Trait Theory
B. Situation in which a leader works                  2. Systems Theory
C. Participation of subordinates                         3. Theory 'Y'
      in goal setting
D. Role of leader, situation,                               4. Situational
     followers and environment Theory
     A    B    C    D           A    B    C   D
(a) 1     2     3    4       (b) 1     3     4    2
(c) 3     4     1     2      (d) 1     4      3    2

119. Herbert Simon's model of decision making is known as
(a) disjointed incrementalism 
(b) behaviour alternative
(c) mixed scanning 
(d) policy science

120. Who among the following identified channels of communication with channels of authority ?
(a) Herbert Simon             (b) Chester Bernard
(c) J. D. Millet                  (d) Ordway Tead

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