Home
Looking for Previous Year IAS Papers? Download now free!
You will be auto-sent a link to download the IAS Past Papers & Model Papers when you join the IAS Free Training Group

Home | Downloads | Careers | Books |IAS Online TutorialsIAS online Tutorials | Advertise Advertise| Contact Us | About Us | ForumForum| Link to usLink to us
Login Tuesday, March 5, 2024

IAS Resources
About IAS
IAS Preparation
IAS Careers
IAS Syllabus
IAS Online Tutorials
IAS Free Online Exam
Indian Forest Service
Indian Engineering Service
Indian Foreign Service
Indian Police Service
Record and Opinion
Books and Links
Free Downloads
Miscellaneous


Home » IAS Previous Year Test Papers » IAS Medical Science-2005-Prelims

IAS Previous Year Test Papers

A D V E R T I S E M E N T
>

C.S.E � MEDICAL SCIENCE � 2005

(PRELIMINARY)

Time Allowed: 2 hours Maximum Marks


(more content follows the advertisement below)
A D V E R T I S E M E N T


1. Consider the following statements:

The human heart has

1. the opening of coronary sinus in the right atrium.

2. its SA Node located just above the opening of coronary sinus.

3. its AV Node located in the atrio-ventricular septum. Which of the statements

given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. The paralysis of which one of the following causes lurching gait?

(a) Adductor muscles

(b) Gluteus maximus

(c) Ilio-psoas

(d) Gluteus medius et minim us .

3. With reference to left kidney, which one of the following statements not

correct?

(a) It is surrounded by the renal fascia which also encloses the left supra-renal

gland

(b) It has five vascular segments

(c) It is related anteriorly to the fourth part of the duodenum

(d) It drains into the lateral aortic lymph nodes

4. Which of the following sturctures does not pass through lieno-renal

ligament?

(a) Splenic artery (b) Splenic vein

(c) Short gastric arteries (d) Tail of pancreas

5. Match List-I (Arteries supplying stomach) with ListII (Arteries of origin)

and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

A. Left Gastric 1. Coeliac artery

B. Right Gastric 2. Splenic artery

C. Left Gastroepiploic 3. Gastro-duodenal artery

D. Right Gastroepiploic 4. Common Hepatic artery

A B C D A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3

(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1

6. The root of the right lung does not lie behind which one of the following?

(a) Right atrium (b) Right Vagus

(c) Superior vena cava (d) Phrenic nerve

7. Which one of the following is the most important support of the uterus?

(a) Broad ligament

 (b) Round ligament of the uterus

(c) Levator ani muscle

(d) Pubocervical ligament .

8. The germ cells are derived from

(a) yolk sac endoderm (b) amnion

(c) germinal epithelium of gonad (d) allantois

9. Regarding the adrenal gland, which following statement is correct?

(a) It contains pre-ganglionic neurons

(b) Its medulla synthesizes corticoids

(c) It is drained by three veins

(d) It contains chromaffin cells

10. Match List-I (Arteries supplying brain) with List-II (Syndrome or

Symptoms when affected) and select the correct answer using the code given

below:

List-I

A. Anterior spinal artery

B. Posterior cerebral artery

C. Recruitment branch of the

anterior cerebral artery

D. Anterior inferior cerebeller

artery

List-II

1. Isolated facial nerve palsy

2. Lateral medullary syndrome

3. Medical medullary syndrome

4. Third and Fourth cranial nerve palsy

5. Sixth, Seventh and Eighth cranial

nerve palsy

A B C D A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 5 (b) 3 4 1 5

(c) 3 5 1 4 (d) 1 5 2 4

11. The ipsilateral fibres of the optic nerve relay in which of the following layers

of lateral geniculate body?

(a) 2, 3, 5 (b) 1, 4, 6

(c) 1, 4, 5 (d) 2, 3, 6

12. Through which part of internal capsule does auditory pathway pass?

(a) Anterior limb (b) Posterior limb

(c) Retro-lentiform part (d) Sub-lentiform part

13. The secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland reach via

(a) facial nerve (b) glossopharyngeal nerve

(c) mandibular nerve (d) vagus nerve

14. Consider the following developmental zones seen in intracartilaginous bone

formation in long and short bones:

1. Zone of maturation and hypertrophy

2. Zone of proliferation and multiplication

3. Zone of cartilage calcification

4. Zone of cartilage removal and bone deposition

What is the correct sequence of the above zones from the distal ends?

(a) 1 - 2 - 3 � 4 (b) 2 - I - 3 � 4

(c) 2 - 1 - 4 � 3 (d) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2

15. Which one of the following sensory receptors is found in epidermis?

(a) Merkel disc (b) Meissner's corpuscles

(c) Ruffini ending (d) Pacinian corpuscles

16. Which one of the following cells of germinal epithelium of testis devides by

meiosis?

(a) Type A spermatogonium

(b) Primary spermatocyte

(c) Spermatid

(d) Secondary spermatocyte

17. The body of the vertebra develops from

(a) notochord (b) primitive streak

(c) one sclerotome

(d) cephalic and caudal halves of adjacent sclerotomes

18. Which of the following does not contribute to the development of laryngeal

cartilages?

(a) Tuberculum impar

(b) Mesenchyme derived from neural crest

(c) Cartilages of fourth to sixth pairs of pharyngeal arches

(d) Hypobranchial eminence

19. The diaphragm is formed from the following except

(a) septum transversum

(b) paraxial mesoderm

(c) pleuroperitoneal membranes

(d) dorsal mesentery of oesphagus

20. Support of the muscles against gravity is a function of which one of the

following?

(a) Reticular nuclei (b) Hypothalamus

(c) Supplementary motor area (d) Amygdala

21. The type of synaptic inhibition seen in cerebellum is

(a) pre-synaptic (b) post-synaptic

(c) feed forward (d) Renshaw cell

22. The characteristic brown-red colour of faeces is due to the presence of

(a) biliverdin (b) urobilinogen

(c) stercobilin (d) bilirubin

23. Consider the following:

1. Electrocardiogram

2. Phonocardiogram

3. Jugular venous pulse tracing

4. Carotid pulse tracing

Which of the above must be recorded simultaneously in order to calculate the

duration of total electromechanical systole?

 (a) I and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

24. Cerebral vasodilation is not brought about by

(a) an increase in Pco2

(b) a decrease in PO2 below 30 mm Hg

(c) an increase in lactic acid

(d) a decrease in PO2 in the range of 30-60 mm Hg

25. The stimulation of which of the following causes hyperventilation at high

altitude?

(a) Peripheral chemoreceptors

(b) Vagal afferents

(c) Central chemoreceptors

(d) Proprioceptors

26. Section of the vagus nerve results in

(a) increased rate of respiration

(b) decreased depth of respiration

(c) irregular breathing patterns

(d) increase in breath-holding time

27. Regarding prothrombin time, which one of the following statements is not

correct?

(a) It gives an indication of the total quality of prothrombin in the blood sample

(b) It requires the presence of thromboplastin and calcium ions

(c) The reaction involves the tissue thromboplastin activation of prothrombin to

thrombin

(d) It is a measure of rate of reaction from prothrombin to fibrin formation

28. Which one of the following substances, actively transported by the tubular

cells, has the highest Tubular Transport Maximum?

(a) Plasma protein (b) Haemoglobin

(c) Glucose (d) Sodium

29. Blood samples for glucose estimation are collected in fluoride tubes as

fluoride prevents glycolysis by inhibiting.

(a) glucokinase (b) phosphofructokinase

(c) aldolase (d) enolase

30. A molecule used to detect the presence of specific fragment 01 DNA or RNA

is known as

(a) Primosome (b) Probe

(c) Pseudogene (d) Signal

31. Consider the following statements:

1. Plasmids are circular double-stranded DNA seen inside bacteria.

2. Plasmids confer antibiotic resistance to host bacteria.

3. Plasmids are used as vectors in recombinant DNA technology.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 "

32. The process of programmed genedirected cell death characterised by cellshrinkage,

nuclear condensation and fragmentation is known as

(a) Necrosis (b) Chromatolysis

(c) Pyknosis (d) Apoptosis

33. During protein biosynthesis, high energy bonds are not utilized in which one

of the following steps?

(a) Formation of aminoacyl tRNA

(b) Binding of aminoacyl tRNA to A site of ribosome

(c) Formation of peptide bond (peptidyl transferase step)

(d) Translocation step

34. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Hemoglobin S?

(a) Red cells are sickle shaped

(b) Insoluble in low O2 tension

(c) Abnormal heme portion

(d) Normal alpha chain but abnormal beta chain

35. The plasma pH is increased in which of the following situations?

(a) During renal shutdown

(b) During exercise

(c) When a high protein diet is taken

(d) During breath holding

36. The Wobble hypothesis refers to the less stringent base-pairing specificity of the

(a) 5' end base of the codon (b) 5' end base of the anticodon

(c) 3' end base of the anticodon (d) middle base of the anticodon

37. Which of the following factors in bile juice is responsible for preventing the

precipitation of cholesterol and formation of gall stones?

(a) High alkaline condition (b) High concentration of bicarbonates

(c) Bile salts (d) Bile pigments

38. Which one of the following events does not contribute to the movement of

fluid from vascular compartment to extra-vascular compartment during

acute inflammation?

(a) Increased capillary permeability,

(b) Increased osmotic pressure of plasma protein

(c) Increased hydrostatic pressure of the blood

(d) Increased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid

39. Match List-I (Immunological markers in serum of hepatitis-B infection)

with List-II (Significance of the markers) and select the correct answer using

the code given below the Lists:

List - I

A. Persistence of HBe Ag beyond 10

weeks

B. Seroconversion from HBe Ag to

anti-HBe during acute stage

C. High titre of Ig M anti-HBc persists for four to six months

D. Elevated level of IgG anti-HBc in

acute stage

List - II

1. Infection in the remote past

2. Acute recent infection

3. Chronic liver disease

4. Resolution of disease

A B C D A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1

(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 1 4 2 3

40. Match' List-I (Spread of infection) with (Infective disease) and select - the

correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

A. Inhalation I. Hepatitis-E virus infection

B. Ingestion 2. Herpes simplex virus infection

C. Body contact 3. Hepatitis-C virus infection

D. Blood borne 4. Mumps

A B C D A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3

41. Cleavage of IgG molecule by papain gives rise to

(a) one Fe fragment and two Fab fragments

(b) one Fc fragment and four Fab fragments

(c) two Fc fragments and four Fab fragments

(d) two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments

42. Carcinogenesis attributed to the formation of pyramidine dimers in DNA

commonly occurs following exposure to

(a) UV radiation (b) infra-red radiation

(c) viral oncogenes (d) chemical carcinogens

43. The mononuclear macrophage system of bone is

(a) osteoclast (b) osteoblast

(c) osteocyte (d) osteophyte

44. Match List-I (Cytokines) with List-II (Effects) and select the correct answer

using the code given below the Lists:

List-I

A. IL-l and 6

B. TNF- alpha

C. IL-2 and 4

D. G-CSF

List-II

1. Stimulate � haematopoisis

2. Activate inflammatory cells

3. Regulate lymphocytic growth and differentiation

4. Mediate natural immunity

A B C D A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4

(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1

45. Which one of the following immunoglobulins constitutes the antigen-binding

component of B-cell receptor?

(a) IgA (b) IgD

(c) IgM (d) IgG

46. Consider the following findings:

1. Granuloma with central caseation

2. Langhans and foreign body giant cells

3. Zone of lymphocytic infiltration around the mass of epitheloid cells and

giant cells

4. Lack of reticulum between the cells on special stain

Which of the above findings differentiate tuberculous lymph node from

sarcoidosis of lymph node?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

47. In the context of immune system, what is the correct sequence of activation

of the components of the complement in the classical pathway?

(a) CI-C4-C2-C3-C5 (a) CI-C2-;-C5-C4-C3

(a) CI-C5-C4-C2-C3 (a) C3-CI-C2-C4-C5

48. Which of the following does cholera toxin have?

(a) Five 'B' subunits and one �A� subunit

(b) Four 'B' subunits and one �A� subunit

(c) Three 'B' subunits and two �A� subunits

(d) Two 'B' subunits and two �A� subunits

49. Consider the following statements:

T-cell function can be assessed by

1. complement fixation tests.

2. intradermal test.

3. tube agglutination tests.

4. lymphocyte proliferation test.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) I and 4

50. Malarial relapse is seen in

(a) P. falciparum and P. vivax

(b) P. falciparum and P. malariae

(c) P. ovale and P. malariae

(d) P. vivax and P. ovale

51. Match List-I (Autoimmune disease) with List-II (Self antigen) and select the

correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I

A. Pernicious anaemia

B. Multiple sclerosis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Goodpasture's syndrome.

List-II

1. Thyroglobulin

2. Gamma globulin

3. Gastric parietal cells

4. Basement membrane

5. Central nervous system myelin

A B C D A B C D

(a) 4 5 2 3 (b) 3 1 5 4

(c) 4 1 5 3 (d) 3 5 2 4

52. Collagen deficiency due to decreased hydroxylation of proline and lysine

occurs due to the deficiency of which one of the following?

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C

(b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin K

53. The drug of choice to eliminate amoebic luminal cysts is

(a) Metronidazole (b) Tinidazole

(c) Diloxanide furoate (d) Chloroquine

54. The venom of which one of the following snakes is known to be neurotoxic?

(a) Russell�s viper. (b) Pit viper

(c) Krait (d) Sea snake

55. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Cerebral blood flow is approximately 75 ml per 100 gm per minute in the

gray matter

(b) Cerebral oxygen consumption is 3.5 ml per 100 gm per minute

(c) Cerebral glucose consumption is 5 mg per 100 gm per minute

(d) The EEG becomes invariably abnormal when cerebral blood flow diminishes

to 35 ml per 100 gm per minute

56. Match List-I (Pathogen) with List-II (Medium for cultivation) and select the

correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I

A. Salmonella typhimurium

B. Vibrio cholerae

C. Neisseria meningitidis

D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

List-II

1. Lowenstein Jensen medium

2. Chocolate agar

3. Mannitol salt agar

4. TCBS agar

5. Wilson and Blair's medium

A B C D A B C D

(a) 5 4 2 3 (b) 2 5 4 1

(c) 5 4 2 1 (d) 2 5 4 3

57. A comatosed patient due to a large intracerebral bleed is likely to benefit

from the following except

(a) mannitol intravenously

(b) intravenous magnesium sulphate

(c) dexamethasone intravenously

(d) hyperventilation

58. Which one of the following findings is not associated with an acute attack of

bronchial asthma?

(a) Forced expiratory volume in one, second decreases

(b) Maximal expiratory flow rate decreases

(c) Peak expiratory flow rate decreases

(d) Pulsus paradoxus appears when FEV1 is less than 35% of the predicted value

59. Which one of the following statements about management of Status

Epilepticus is not correct?

(a) Maintain airway and start Benzodiazepines group drug

(b) Start bolus dose Dilantin Sodium

(c) If the patient is on antiepileptic drugs, measure the serum level of drugs

(d) Barbiturate must be avoided as it causes respiratory depression

60. Which one of the following is not included in the treatment of hyperkalemia

in acute renal failure?

(a) IV calcium gluconate

(b) Dextrose with insulin infusion

(c) Blood transfusion

(d) IV sodium bicarbonate

61. In the jugular venous pulse 'a' waves larger than 'v' waves are seen in

(a) tricuspid stenosis (b) tricuspid incompetence

(c) patent ductus arteriosus (d) aortic stenosis

62. According to the Welcome classification, a child is said to have kwashiorkor

when his

(a) weight is 60-80% of normal without edema

(b) weight is 60-80% of normal with edema

(c) weight is less than 60% of normal without edema

(d) weight is less than 60% of normal with edema

63. Match List-I (Conditions) with List-II (Drugs used) and select the correct

answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I

A. Chronic stable angina

B. Unstable angina

C. Non ST elevation myocardial

infarction

D. ST elevation myocardial infarction

List-II

1. Clopidogrel

2. gPlIb / IIIa receptor inhibitor

3. Heparin

4. Streptokinase

A B C D A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4

(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1

64. With reference to 'aspiration pneumonia' which one of the following

statements is not correct?

(a) It may occur with inhaled chemical fumes and vapors

(b) Aspiration pneumonitis may damage alveolar permeability for albumin

(c) It may respond dramatically to corticosteroids

(d) It may occur in progressive systemic sclerosis

65. Long-term secondary prevention following myocardial infarction is

recommended with which one of the following drugs?

(a) Antiplatelet drugs (b) Nitrates

(c) Cardorone (d) Calcium channel antagonist

66. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to amoebic liver

abscess?

(a) Its usual occurrence is in the right lobe

(b) Patient is toxic

(c) Surgical drainage is always indicated

(d) Extension of abscess from liver to pericardium is the most dreaded

complication

67. Match List-I (Clinical signs) with List-II (Clinical conditions) and select the

correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I

A. Roth spot

B. Austin Flint murmur

C. Differential cyanosis

D. Carey Coombs murmur

List-II

1. Acute rheumatic fever

2. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

3. Aortic incompetence

4. Patent Ductus with reversal of shunt

A B C D A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 1 3 4 2

68. With reference to the cirrhosis of liver, which one of the following

statements is not correct?

(a) Portal hypertension is considered to be present when wedge hepatic vein

pressure is 5 mm Hg higher than inferior vena cava pressure

 (b) Parotid gland enlargement may be a feature in patients

(c) Hyperbilirubinaemia is a common finding in alcoholic cirrhosis

(d) Liver Js usually enlarged and macro nodular

69. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

(a) Severe peptic ulceration

(b) Hyperchlorhydria

(c) Diarrhoea and steatorrhea

(d) Hypergastrinemia in response to intravenous secretin is not seen in this

syndrome

70. Regarding membranous glomerulonephritis, which of the following is not

correct?

(a) Thickening of the basement membranes is usually present

(b) A marked increase in cellular infiltrate within the glomerulus is usually

present

(c) This entity is most common in adults

(d) Significant proteinuria is usually present

71. Which of the following is a characteristic of poliomyelitis?

(a) Initial febrile illness followed by development of asymmetrical paralysis

(b) Symmetrical muscle weakness with frequent paraesthesia but normal reflexes

(c) Ascending motor paralysis with preservation of reflexes and sensation

(d) Pain in the affected limb with sensorimotor deficit

72. Which one of the following is not a, characteristic of schizophrenia?

(a) Delusion of grandeur

(b) Auditory hallucination

(c) Anxiety

(d) Delusion of passivity

73. Which one of the following drugs can cause cholestatic hepatitis?

(a) Isoniazid (b) Ketoconazole

(c) Erythromycin estolate (d) Carbon tetrachloride

74. Match List-I (Blood substitutes) with List-II (Indications) and select the

correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

A. Cryoprecipitate 1. Volume expansion

B. Fresh whole blood. 2. Acute haemorrhage

C. Albumin 3. Replacement of clotting factors

D. Fresh frozen plasma 4. Fibrinogen deficiency

A B C D A B C D

(a) 3 2 I 4 (b) 4 2 1 3

(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 1 2 3

75. Avascular necrosis can occur in fractures of the following bones except

(a) talus (b) lunate

(c) scaphoid (d) triquetrum

76. Which one of the following statements regarding glutaraldehyde is not

correct?

(a) It is used to disinfect endoscopes

(b) The concentration of its solution used for disinfection is 4%

(c) It is effective at pH 7.5 to 8.5

(d) It kills both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms; and viruses

including hepatitis Band HIV

77. The complications of total parenteral nutrition include the following expect

(a) hypermagnesemia (b) hypokalemia

(c) hyperosmolar dehydration (d) hypophosphatemia

78. Match List-I (Type of fracture) with List-II (Occurrence) and select the

correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I

A Compression fracture

B. Green-stick fracture

C. Avulsion fracture

D. March fracture

List-II

I. Common in small bones with strong muscles

2. Common in elderly and osteoporotic bones

3. Common in children and one cortex is intact

4. Common in athletes

A B C D A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 I 2

79. Regarding the management of fracture shaft of femur, which" one of the

following statements is not correct?

(a) Infants are best treated by traction applied by Gallow�s splint

(b) Children are treated by skin traction in a Thomas splint .

(c) In adults it is treated by internal fixation with intramedullary Kuntscher nail

(d) Elderly patients are managed by internal fixation with sliding compression

80. Eradicaiton of H. pylori has been proved to be beneficial in the following

conditions except

(a) duodenal ulcer

(b) gastric ulcer

(c) low grade MALT lymphoma

(d) hypertrophic gastritis

81. The following methods are used to lower the intracranial pressure in

patients with head injury except

(a) hyperventilation

(b) administration of Mannitol

(c) hypothermia

(d) administration of Nifedipine

82. Clinical manifestations of bronchogenic carcinoma include the following

except

(a) hoarseness of voice due to involvement of left recurrent laryngeal nerve

(b) Horner's syndrome

(c) diaphragmati palsy due to infiltration of phrenic nerve

(d) gastroparesis due to vagal involvement

83. Which one of the following is a muscle-splitting incision?

(a) Kocher's (b) Rutherford-Morris

(c) Pfannenstiel (d) Lanz

84. Regarding prostatic venous plexus, which one of the following statements is

correct?

(a) It lies between the false capsule and true anatomical capsule

(b) It lies between prostatic urethra and false capsule

(c) It lies between the anatomical capsule and the prostatic sheath of endopelvic

fascia,

(d) It lies outside the prostatic sheath of endopelvic fascia

85. A 4 x 4 cm NOMO inflammatory carcinoma of breast is best managed by

(a) radical mastectomy followed by radiotherapy

(b) neoadjuvant chemotheraphy followed by surgery

(c) radiotherapy followed by simple mastectomy

(d) simple mastectomy followed by adjuvant chemotheraphy

86. During urethral catheterisation in male patients, resistance is encountered at

the following sites except

(a) base of navicular fossa

(b) mid-penile urethra

(c) urogenital diaphragm

(d) bulbomembranous junction

87. Which one of ' the following surgical procedures used in the treatment of

sigmoid volvulus has a maximum incidence of recurrence?

(a) Exteriorisation

(b) Sigmoidopexy

(c) Extraperitonisation

(d) Resection of sigmoid colon

88. Regarding the flow of Cerebrospinal Fluid, which one of the following

sequences is correct?

(a) Lateral ventricle - third ventricle - aqueduct of Sylvius - fourth ventricle

(b) Fourth ventricle - third ventricle - aqueduct of Sylvius - lateral ventricle

(c) Lateral ventricle - aqueduct of Sylvius � third ventricle - fourth ventricle

(d) Lateral ventricle - third ventricle - fourth ventricle - aqueduct of Sylvius

89. Which one of the following reagents is riot used as sclerosant in the

treatment of bleeding varices?

(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Ethanolamine oleate

(c) Phenol (d) Sodium morrhuate

90. Portal hypertension secondary to splenic vein thrombosis is best treated by

(a) portacaval shunt

(b) splenorenal shunt

(c) oesophageal stapled transection

(d) splenectomy and devascuiarisation

91. To which one of the following types of disorders does haemophilia belong?

(a) Autosomal dominant (b) Autosomal recessive

(c) Recessive sex-linked (d) Dominant sex-linked

92. Positive Mantoux test indicates that the person

(a) is suffering from tuberculosis

(b) is infected with M: tuberculosis

(c) has extra-pulmonary tuberculosis

(d) is suffering from atypical mycobacteria

93. Duration of MDT (Multi drug Therapy) to resolve paucibacillary leprosy is

(a) 6 months (b) 8 months

(c) 9 months (d) 12 months

94. In a case control study, of association between

(a) relative risk (b) absolute risk

(c) odds ratio (d) proportionate ratio

95. Consider the following:

1. Temporal Association

2. Strength of Association

3. Specificity of Association

4. Sensitivity of Association

Which of the above are included in the criteria for the measure of the strength

risk factor and outcome is judging causality between an agent and disease?

(a) I, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) I, 2 and 4

96. The relationship of mean height of two groups of children is best studied by

(a) Student's t-test (b) linear regression

(c) chi-square test (d) test of proportions

97. Which one of the following methods can most effectively control the

prevalence of Brugia Malayan Filariasis?

(a) BHC spraying at the rate of 2 g per sq. m surface on all structures in the area

(b) Application of one kg of Paris green as 2% dust with soap stone per acre of

water surface

(c) Removal of Pistia and other water hyacinth group of plants from water

courses

 (d) Daily use of mosquito repellent nets by all residents

98. Which one of the following committees first recommended a Comprehensive

Health Care delivery system for India?

(a) Bhore Committee

(b) Kartar Singh Committee

(c) Mudaliar Committee

(d) Srivastava Committee

99. Match List-I (Disease) with List-II (Mode of transmission) and select the

correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

A. Ascariasis l. Faeco-oral route

B. Ankylostomiasis 2. Per-cutaneous route

C. Dracunculiasis 3. Oral route

D. Lymphatic filariasis 4. Vector route

A B C D A B C D

(a) I 2 3 4 (b) I 3 2 4

(c) 4 2 3 I (d) 4 3 2 1

100. Which one of the following organisms is the best indicator of faecal pollution

of water?

(a) Streptococcus faecalis (b) Clostridium perfringens

(c) Salmonella enteritidis (d) Escherichia coli

101. Disability-Adjusted Life Year (DALY) expresses the

(a) extent of disability in the population

(b) expectation of life free of disability

(c) years of life,lost to premature death

(d) lost years of life due to premature death and disability

102. The prevalence rate to be achieved to reach leprosy elimination level is

(a) 10 cases per 10,000 population

(b) 5 cases per 10,000 population

(c) less than I case per 10,000 population

(d) less that 1 case per 1,000 population

103. Match List-I (Disease/Microorganism) with List-II (Status) and select the

correct answer using the. code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

A. Yellow fever 1. Endemic

B. Measles 2. Exotic

C. Hepatitis-A 3. Epornitic

D. Mycobacterium avium 4. Epidemic

5. Opportunistic

A B C D A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 4 2 3 I

(c) 2 4 1 5 (d) 4 2 I 5

104. The number of abortions performed divided by the number of live births in

the same period is known as

(a) abortion rate (b) abortion incidence

(c) abortion prevalence (d) abortion ratio

105. Consider the following:

l. NET-EN (Nbrethisterone Enantate)

2. DMPA (Depot Medroxy Progesterone Acetate)

3. Mesigyna

4. Norplant

Which of the above are the injectable contraceptives?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

106. Which of the following measurements indicates whether leprosy cases are

being detected early or not?

(a) New case detection rate

(b) Proportion of children among new cases.

(c) Proportion of new cases with disability

(d) Prevalence rate of disease

107. Diuresis produced by alcohol is due to

(a) decreased tubular reabsorption

(b) increased glomerular filtration rate

(c) osmotic diuresis

(d) inhibition of ADH secretion

108. Consider the following statements:

1. There are 2,743 Community Health Centres in India.

2. One Community Health Centre covers 80,000 to 1,20,000 population and

usually has 30 indoor beds. Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

109. The period of infectivity in viral hepatitis-A is maximum

(a) up to 12 weeks after the onset of jaundice

(b) during first 4 weeks after the onset of jaundice

(c) during one week after the onset of jaundice

(d) during two weeks before to one week after the onset of jaundice

110. In the rod photo receptors, the pigment rhodopsin is present in.

(a) plasma membrane

(c) cytoplasm

(b) disk membrane

(d) endoplasmic reticulum

111. Consider the following statements:

1. At present more than 550 District Blindness Control Societies are set up in

India.

2. At present only five States have reached the level of leprosy elimination in

India.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

112. A relative paralysis of voluntary activity during REM sleep is dependent on

(a) thalamus (b) cerebellum

(c) pons (d) locus ceruleus

Directions: The following eight (8) items consist of two statements, one labelled as

�Assertion (a) ' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements

carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below;

(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

113. Assertion (A) : Jlering-Breuer reflex has no role in the regulation of pulmonary

ventilations during quiet breathing.

Reason (R) : It is the load detection reflex that adjusts the tidal volume of an

eupneic breathing.

114. Assertion (A) : Malignant cells are hyperchromatic.

Reason (R) : Nuclei of malignant cells contain an abundance of DNA

115. Assertion (R) : Loeffler's syndrome is a clinical manifestation of ascariasis.

Reason (R) : Large amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) is released into the

circulation in Loeffler's syndrome.

116. Assertion (R) : Supracondylar fracture of humerus leads to compartment

syndrome.

Reason (R) : Supracondylar fracture is associated with injury to brachial

artery.

117. Assertion (R) : Prostaglandin E, is used in the .medical treatment of Buerger's

disease.

Reason (R) : Prostaglandin E, produces maximal vasodilation and inhibits

platelet aggregation.

118. Assertion (R) : Sub-capital fracture femur is very common in elderly.

Reason (R) : Elderly patients suffer from osteoarthritis.

119. Assertion (R) : In the lesion of the facial nerve below the stylomastoid foramen,

there is a loss of taste in the anterior two-third of the tongue.

Reason (R) : The chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve carries the taste

fibres for the anterior two-third of the tongue.

120. Assertion (R) : Tuberculoid leprosy is associated with a heavy bacillary load.

Reason (R) : Cell-mediated immune response is intact with infiltration of

helper T-cells in the skin of patients of tuberculoid leprosy.




Discussion Center

Discuss

Query

Feedback/ Suggestion

Yahoo Groups

Sirfdosti Groups

Contact Us




Members Login Here!
EmailId:
Password:


Forgot Password?
New User? Register!
Toppers View



INTERVIEW EBOOK
Get 9,000+ Interview Questions & Answers in an eBook. Interview Question & Answer Guide
  • 9,000+ Interview Questions
  • All Questions Answered
  • 5 FREE Bonuses
  • Free Upgrades

IAS PREPARATION EBOOKS

IAS Exam, IAS 2024, IAS 2025 Training, IAS 2023 Papers and Solutions, IAS Preparation & Related Pages


IAS Forum | Civil Services | IAS Overview | How to Prepare for IAS | IAS Eligibility Criteria | IAS Exam Pattern | IAS Exam Syllabus | IAS Application Form Centers | Sections Under IAS Examinations | Postings of an IAS Officer | Method of Making Notes | Style of Answering Questions | Time Management | IAS Regulations | Cut off Marks in IAS | Training Institutes for IAS | IAS Tips | Time Table for IAS 2024 Exam | Calendar for IAS 2024 Exam | Top Scorers in IAS Exam | Post Offices for IAS Exam Form | Sample IAS Exam Paper | IAS Current Affairs | Career in IAS | Jobs Offered in IAS | Nature of Work | Interview Tips for IAS | Interview Techniques for IAS | IAS Syllabus | IAS Preparation Strategy | IAS Model Notification | Daily / Periodicals for IAS | Art and Craft | IAS Tutorials | IAS Tutorials for Agriculture | IAS Tutorials for Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science | IAS Tutorials for Botany | IAS Tutorials for Chemistry | IAS Tutorials for Economics | IAS Tutorials for Essay | IAS Tutorials for Geography | IAS Tutorials for Geology | IAS Tutorials for Indian History | IAS Tutorials for Physics | IAS Tutorials for Psychology | IAS Tutorials for Sociology | IAS Tutorials for Zoology | Previous Years Test Papers for IAS | IAS Mock Exam | Current Affairs for IAS | IFS - Indian Forest Services | IFS - Indian Forest Services Examination Plan | IFS - Indian Forest Services General Instructions | IFS - Indian Forest Services - List of Head Post Offices | IFS - Indian Forest Services Special Instructions | IES - Indian Engineering Service | IES - Indian Engineering Service Model Notification | IES - Indian Engineering Service General Instructions | IES - Indian Engineering Service Examination Plan | IFS - Indian Foreign Service | IFS - Indian Foreign Service - Selection & Training | Career in IFS - Indian Foreign Service | IPS - Indian Police Service - Modern Ranks and Rank Badges | IPS - Indian Police Service in History | IPS - Indian Police Service - External Resources | Reward of Brilliance | Deputation | Civil Lines | IAS Toppers Opinion | Renumeration in IAS | AKHAND PRATAP SINGH - IAS Topper | Anay Dwivedi - IAS Topper | Anupama - IAS Topper | D DIVYA - IAS Topper | Divyadharshini - IAS Topper | Divyadharshini Shanmugam - IAS Topper | Dr Sumit Seth - IAS Topper | GAGAN - IAS Topper | Garima Mittal - IAS Topper | GARIMA MITTAL - IAS Topper | Iqbal Dhalibal - IAS Topper | Iva Sahay - IAS Topper | JAI PRAKASH MAURYA - IAS Topper | Karthik Adapa - IAS Topper | Mangesh Kumar - IAS Topper | Manish Ranjan - IAS Topper | Muthyala Raju Revu - IAS Topper | Nila Mohan - IAS Topper | Pankaj Dwivedi - IAS Topper | PC Vinoj Kumar - IAS Topper | Prasad Praladh Akkanouru - IAS Topper | Prince Dhawan - IAS Topper | R V Varun Kumar - IAS Topper | RAVI DHAWAN - IAS Topper | Roopa Mishra - IAS Topper | Rukmani Riar - IAS Topper | Saswati Dey - IAS Topper | SASWATI DEY - IAS Topper | Shah faesal - IAS Topper | Shena Agrawal - IAS Topper | Sorabh Babu Maheshwari - IAS Topper | Sweta Mohanty - IAS Topper | TANVI SUNDRIYAL - IAS Topper | Vijayalakshmi Bidari - IAS Topper | IAS Books | SSC Exam Pattern | CDSC Exam Pattern | NDA Exam Pattern | GA - General Awareness Exam Pattern | PG - Post Graduate Exam Pattern |
Copyright © 2024. One Stop IAS.com. All rights reserved Privacy Policies | Terms and Conditions | About Us
Our Portals : Free eBooks | Interview Questions | IndiaJobForum | Free Classifieds | Vyoms | One Stop FAQs | One Stop GATE | One Stop GRE | One Stop IAS | One Stop MBA | Free SAP Training | One Stop Testing | Web Hosting | Sirf Dosti | Your Project Code | Cook Book Global | Tests World | Clean Jokes | Vyom | Vyom eBooks | Vyom Links | Vyom World | Shayari | C Interview Questions | C++ Interview Questions | Send Free SMS | Placement Papers | SMS Jokes | CAT 2024 Notification