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C.S.E. LAW - 2005 (PRELIMINARY)
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
1. Section 34 of I.P.C. provides for liability based on common intention.
Consider the following situations:
1. The weapon used in the offence was found in A's house.
2. A house procured the weapon of offence voluntarily to aid the criminal gang.
3. A was compelled under threat to his life to procure the weapon of offence.
4. The weapon was supplied on receipt of value of the weapon (sale).
Which of the situations given above reflect(s) the correct ingredients with regard
to Section 34?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 4 only
2. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is
standing by. What offence is committed by A in this situation?
(a) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide
(b) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) A has committed no offence as it was an accident
(d) A has committed no offence as use of hatchet was a necessity of his
livelihood
3. What is the age of child if he is to be exempted from criminal liability'?
(a) Below 10 years (b) McNaughten's Rules
(c) Below 6 years (d) Equivocality test
4. Defence of insanity is developed on which of the following?
(a) Automatism (b) Below 7 years
(c) Irresistible impulse (d) Below 12 years
5. Which one of the following is an inchoate crime?
(a) Public nuisance (b) Criminal attempt
(c) Unlawful assembly (d) Riot
6. The Courts have evolved some tests to determine at what stage an act or a
series of acts done towards the commission of the intended offence would
become an attempt. Identify which one of the following test is not correct.
(a) Proximity test (b) Impossiblity test
(c) Locus standi test (d) Social danger test
7. X, a woman, who ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, was
caught before she could reach it. Which one of the following statements is
correct in this regard?
(a) She is not guilty of an attempt to commit suicide although she intended to do
so and prepared to carry out that intention yet she might have changed her
mind
(b) She is guilty of committing offence of attempt to commit suicide as she
categorically declared to do so
(c) She is guilty of no offence as whatever was done by her did not amount to
preparation for committing suicide
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(d) She is guilty of attempt to commit culpable homicide as she attempted to kill
herself
8. When law makes out a contract for parties although no contract might have
been made by. the parties, such a contract is termed as
(a) Contract of frustration (b) Quasi-contract
(c) Unenforceable agreement (d) Contract by obligation
9. The defendant has filed a complaint to the Magistrate against the plaintiff.
The complaint was dismissed. The defendant moved the Sessions Judge in
appeal. He got himself examined in Sessions trial although he knew the
charge was false and he was acting without reasonable and probable cause.
His complaint was dismissed by the Sessions Judge. Thereupon the plaintiff
filed a suit for malicious prosecution against the defendant.
In the aforesaid case, which one of the following conclusions is correct?
(a) The defendant is liable for malicious prosecution
(b) The defendant is not liable for malicious prosecution
(c) The defendant is not liable to pay damages to the plaintiff
(d) The plaintiff's suit must be dismissed
10. The branch of a tree growing on the defendant's land hung on the highway
at a height of about 30 feet above the ground. In fine weather, the branch
suddenly broke and fell upon the plaintiff's vehicle which was passing along
the highway. For the damage to the vehicle, the plaintiff sues the defendant
on the ground of nuisance. Which one of the following conclusions is correct
in this suit?
(a) The defendant was liable for nuisance
(b) The defendant was not liable for nuisance
(c) The defendant was liable under the principle" of strict liability
(d) The plaintiff's suit should be decreed in his favour
11. A theft had been committed in the defendant's house. He informed the police
that he suspected the plaintiff for the same. Therefore the plaintiff was
arrested by the police. A complaint was filed by the defendant but the
plaintiff was subsequently discharged, by the magistrate as the final report
showed that there was no evidence connecting the plaintiff with the theft.
The plaintiff filed a suit for damages on the ground of malicious prosecution.
In the above case, which one of the following decisions is correct?
(a) The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from the defendant
(b) The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from the police
(c) The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from both
(d) The plaintiff is not entitled to claim damages for malicious prosecution at all
12. During the scarcity of potatoes, long queues were, made outside the
defendant's shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to
sell only 1Kg of potatoes per ration card. The queues extended on to the
highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops. The
neighboring shopkeepers brought an action for nuisance against the
defendant. Which one of the following decisions will, be correct in this suit?
(a) The defendant is liable for nuisance
(b) The defendant is not liable for nuisance
(c) The plaintiffs' suit should be decreed in their favour
(d) The defendant is liable to pay damages to the plaintiffs
13. When does the tort of conspiracy exist?
(a) Two or more persons agree to commit an unlawful act
(b) Two or more persons agree to commit some recognized tort
(c) Two or more persons caused harm to the plaintiff
(d) Two or more persons committed a conceI1ed action to injure the plaintiff
In India an action of slander may be maintained without proof of special
14.
damage in some cases. Identify in which of the following cases proof of
damage is necessary?
(a) Imputation of crime
(b) Vulgar abusive language
(c) Imputation of contagious disease
(d) Imputation of lack of chastity to a woman
15. Which one of the following statements regarding Section 34 and 149 of the
Indian Penal Code is correct?
(a) Common intention and common object are the same
(b) Both are district offences in themselves
(c) Section 34 enunciates a mere principle of liability, and creates no offence
while Section 149 creates a specific offence
(d) Sections 34 and 149 are mutually helping Sections
Match List I (Case) with List II (Subject) and select the correct answer using
16.
the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Kehar Singh v. 1. Right of Private Defence
Delhi Administration
B. Nawab Ali v. 2. Criminal Conspiracy
State of U.P.
C. Vishwanath v. State of U.P. 3. Common intention
D. Mahbub Shah v. Emperor 4. Common object
5. Mistake of fact
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 I 5 2
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 5 3
17. X with the intention of causing death of Y instigates a child below 7 of age to
mix poison in the food of Y in the absence of X. Y takes the food and dies.
What is X guilty of?
(a) No offence (b) abetment of murder
(c) Murder (d) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
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18. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists:
List I List 11
A. Instigation to commit an offence 1. Criminal conspiracy
B. Agreement to commit and offence 2. Necessity
C. Grave & sudden provocation 3. Abetment
D. Acts done without criminal 4. Culpable homicide not
intention to prevent other harm amounting to murder
5. Attempt
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 5 3 (b) 3 I 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 4 5 2
19. X instigates Y to murder Z. Y in pursuance of the instigation stabs Z who
recovers from the wound. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Y is liable for attempt to murder and X is liable for abetment of attempt to
murder
(b) Y is guilty of attempt to murder and X is guilty of abetment of murder
(c) Y is guilty of attempt to murder and X is guilty of no offence
(d) X is guilty of attempt to murder and Y is guilty of no offence
20. To constitute an offence of criminal conspiracy, what is the necessary
condition to be proved?
(a) There must be a prior meeting of two or more persons
(b) There must be an agreement of two or more persons to do an illegal act or to
do a legal act by illegal means
(c) A person does an illegal act with the help of two or more persons
(d) Two or more persons commit a crime on a sudden provocation with guilty
mind
21. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India strike
down Section 303 of I. P. C. as unconstitutional?
(a) Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab
(b) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
(c) Santa Singh v. State of Punjab
(d) Mithu v. State of Punjab
22. X knows that Y is suffering from enlarged spleen. He gives Y a first blow
which ruptures the spleen and causes his death. X being a doctor knows that
a moderate blow on that region would rupture the spleen and is likely to
cause V's death. What is X guilty of?
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder as X knew that his act is likely
to cause death '
(b) Murder as X knew that his act is likely to cause death of Y to whom the
injury was inflicted
(c) No offence as the below would not have caused death of a normal man in
ordinary circumstances of the case
(d) An offence other than murder or culpable homicide not amounting to murder
23. Which of the following is an element of strict liability in tort?
(a) Duty to take care (b) Fault
(c) Breach of duty (d) No-fault
24. X by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces Z to sign a blank
paper and deliver it to X. Which offence is committed by X?
(a) No offence (b) Criminal misappropriation
(c) Extortion (d) Robbery
25. X cuts down a tree on V's land with the intention of dishonestly taking the
tree out of Y's possession without his consent. What is X guilty of?
(a) No offence until the tree is taken away
(b) The offence of criminal misappropriation of property
(c) The offence of criminal breach of trust
(d) The offence of theft as soon as the tree is severed from the ground
26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Common intention I. Theft
B. Common object 2. Abetment
C. Instigation 3. Joint liability
D. Dishonest intention 4. Constructive liability
5. Vicarious liability
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 4 5 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 5 4
27. Match List I (Case) with List II (Subject) and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. K. M. Nanavati v. state of Maharashtra 1. Criminal conspiracy
B. Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab. 2. Dacoity
C. Barindra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor. 3. Murder
D. Shyam Behari v. State of U.P. 4. Grave and sudden provocation
5. Unsoundness of mind
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1. 2 (b) 1 2 5 3
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 5 2
28. Which of the following elements constitute criminal misappropriation of
property?
1. Movable property belonging to a person other than the accused.
2. Any property belonging to a person other than the accused.
3. The accused must have misappropriated the property to his own use.
4. There must be dishonest intention on the part of the accused.
. I
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 '
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
29. A lady wishing to get a railway ticket, finding a crowd I at the ticket window
at the station, asked X, who was I near the window, to get a ticket for her
and handed him over the money for the same. X took the money and instead
of getting the ticket ran away with the money. What offence has been
committed by X? .
(a) No offence
(b) Offence of criminal breach of trust
(c) Offence of criminal misappropriation
(d) Offence of theft
Which of the following types of contracts are generally termed uberrima
30.
[ides contracts?
1. Insurance contracts.
2. Contract for purchase of car.
3. Partnership contracts.
4. Quasi-contract.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) rand 3
(c) 1,2and4 (d) 2,3and4
31. The Supreme Court has interpreted the 'power of judicial review' as a basic
feature of the Constitution. However, there is a Schedule to the Constitution,
in which if a statute is specified, it cannot be questioned in a court of law on
the ground of violation of fundamental rights. Which one of the following is
that Schedule?
(a) Tenth Schedule (b) Eleventh Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule (d) Twelfth Schedule
The following are enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India:
1. Equality of status and opportunity.
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
3. Justice - Social, economic and political.
4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual. 5. Unity and integrity of the
Nation
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the
preamble?
(a) 5 - 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 (b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 - 5
(c) 3 - I - 2 - 5 - 4 (d) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 - 5
33. Which of the following' sections of citizens should be excluded from the
benefits of reservations according to the principle of 'Creamy Layer' as
propounded by the Supreme Court in the Mandal Commission judgment?
1. Advanced sections among the Other Backward Classes.
2. Advanced sections among the Scheduled Castes.
3. Advanced sections among the Scheduled Tribes.
4. Advanced sections among the economically backward classes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) land 2
(c) l and 4 (d) 2 and 3
34. Match List I (C1se) with List II (Subject Dealt With) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union 1. Equal pay for equal work
of India 2. Prawn culture and Coastal
B. TM.A. Pai Foundation v. State Zone Regulations
of Kerala 3. Judicial Review
C. Randhir Singh v. Union of 4. Rights of minority educational
India institutions
D. S. Jagannath v. Union of India 5. Uniform civil code
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 5 2 (b) 3 21 4
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 5 4
35. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available to both the
citizens and aliens?
(a) The right to equality of opportunity in public employment
(b) The right to six freedoms
(c) Cultural and educational rights
(d) The right to equality
36. In which case has the Supreme Court of India held that there is no reason to
compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution?
(a) Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu v. Union of India
(b) Onkar Lal Bijoy v. Union of India
(c) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India
(d) Ramakrishnan v. State of Kerala
Which one of the following' is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
37.
(a) Organization of Vil1age Panchayats
(b) Uniform Civil Code for citizens as well as non-citizens
(c) Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases
(d) Participation of workers in management of industries
38. Which one of the following statements is correct? Right to free and
compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years is
(a) a fundamental right enforceable in a court of law
(b) a fundamental duty
(c) a directive principle of state policy
(d) a fundamental right which, however, can be enforced only if the State makes
an enabling legislation
39. For which of the following, can special provisions be made under Article 15
of the Constitution of India?
1. Women and children.
2. Scheduled Tribes.
3. Economically backward classes.
4. Socially backward classes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
40. Who appoints the judicial officers of the subordinate judiciary other than
the district judges?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) State Public Service Commission
(c) Governor in accordance with the rules made by him in consultation with the
High COUl1 and State Public Service Commission
(d) Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in
relation to such state
41. Which one of the following statements is correct?
On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill after its passing by each House of
the Parliament, the President
(a) shall give his assent
(b) may give his assent
(c) may withhold his assent
(d) may return the Bill for reconsideration
42. Through which of the following provisions, does the Constitution of India
explicitly prohibit racial discrimination in India?
(a) Articles 14 and 17 (b) Articles 17 and 23
(c) Articles 15 and 16 (d) Article 17 only
43. Consider the following judgements of the Supreme Court which dealt with
the appointment and transfer of judges of the Supreme Court and High
Courts:
1. S. P. Gupta v. Union of India.
2. Sankal Chand Seth v. Union of India.
3. In re Special Reference No.1 of 1998.
4. Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India.
44. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order in which the
above judgements were delivered?
(a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (b) 2 - 1 - 3.- 4
(c) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 (d) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3
44. Consider the following statements:
The High Court has jurisdiction to
1. punish for its contempt.
2. tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the President of India.
3. tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State.
4. issue certain writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights or for other
purposes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) I and 2
(c) I, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
45. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a state if requested
by the Governor of that state and approved by the President
(b) Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of. a state if
requested by the Chief Minister of that state
(c) Union Public Service Commission cannot serve the needs of a state
(d) Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a state simply on
request of Governor. Approval of the President is not necessary
46. Match List I (Case) with List II (Subject) and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists:
List II
List I
1. Harmonious construction
A State of Rajasthan v. G. Chawla
2. Colourable Legislation
B. K. T Moopil Nair v. State of Kerala
3. Repugnancy
C. Gujarat University v. Krishna
4. Pith and Substance
D. M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India
5. Incidental powers
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 5 2 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 1 2 5 3 (d) 4 3 1 2
47. Consider the following statements:
The executive power of the Union extends to giving of directions to a State in
respect of
1. construction and maintenance of means of communication of national or
military importance.
2. maintenance of law and order in the State.
3. protection of railways within the State.
4. protection of secular character of the country. Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
48. In India, the doctrine of impossibility of performance rendering contracts
void is based on
(a) the theory of implied term
(b) the theory of just and reasonable solution
(c) supervening impossibility or illegality as laid down in Section 56 of the
Indian Contract Act
(d) principle of unjust enrichment
49. A borrows Rs. 10,000 form B with interest at 12 percent per annum, with a
stipulation that in case of default A shall be liable to pay interest at 75
percent from the date of default. A commits the default. B is entitled to
recover from A
(a) 12% interest
(b) 75% interest
(c) 87% interest
(d) such compensation as the Court considers reasonable
50. Contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if a specified uncertain
event does not happen within a ~ fixed time become
(a) void, if before the time fixed, such event becomes possible
(b) valid, if before the time fixed, such event becomes impossible
(c) voidable, if before the time fixed, the promisor becomes lunatic
(d) illegal, if before the time fixed, the promisor dies
51. Consider the following statements:
To justify insantity as a defence to a charge of crime,
1. irresistible impulse per se is no defence to a charge of crime.
2. diminished responsibility is a defence to a charge of a crime.
which, of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. If the performance of contract becomes impossible, because of a supervening
event, the promisor is excused from the performance. This is known as
(a) doctrine of estoppel (b) doctrine of frustration
(c) doctrine of eclipse (d) doctrine of caveat emptor
53. Damages awarded with a view to punish the party who commits the breach
of contract are known as
(a) liquidated damages (b) punitive damages
(c) special damages (d) general damages
Directions: The following 8 (Eight) items consist of two statements, one labeled
as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these
two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes
given below:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
54. Assertion (A) : The effect of conditional recognition is that failure to fulfill the
condition or obligation will annul the recognition.
Reason (R) : Recognition may be conditional as sometimes states are
recognized subject to a condition, generally an obligation which
they- undertake to fulfill.
55. Assertion (A) : Austin does speak of the science of law.
Reason (R) : Science of law and philosophy of positive law are synonymous
to him.
56. Assertion (A) : Ex-post-facto laws are laws which voided and punished an act
that had been lawful when done.
Reason (R) : Imposing or increasing a penalty with retrospective effect for
violation of a taxing statute does not infringe Article 20(1).
57. Assertion (A) : Plaintiff may sue one or all of the wrong doers jointly in same
action and even if sued jointly the judgement obtained against
them may be executed in full against anyone of them.
Reason (R) : Joint tort-feasors are jointly & severally liable for the whole
damage resulting from the tort. .
58. Assertion (A) : X; because of unsoundness of mind, not knowing the nature of
the act, attacks Y, who in self defence and in order to ward off
the attack, hits him thereby causing him hurt. Y does not' commit
an offence.
Reason (R) : Y had a right of private defence against X under Section 98 of
the Indian Penal Code.
59. Assertion (A) : X and Y had independently entertained the idea to kill Z.
Accordingly each of them separately inflicted wounds on Z who
dies in consequence. X and Yare liable. for murder with the aid
of SeCtion 34 L P. C.
Reason (R) : When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of
common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if the.
whole act is done by him alone.
60. Assertion (A) : A person claims compensation for his non-gratuitous act.
Reason (R) : A person who enjoys benefit from lawful non-gratuitous act of
another must compensate him even though there is no contract.
61. Assertion (A) : In the event of breach of contract the aggrieved party is entitled
to recover compensation for the loss or damage I which is
caused to him by the breach of contract.
Reason (R) : The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put
him in the same position in which he would have been if the
contract had been performed. Damages are, therefore, assessed
on that basis.
62. It is said that the next step forward the long path of man's progress may be
from jurisprudence to jurimetrics In this context, what does jurimetrics
signify?
1. Speculation about law. .
2. Scientific investigation of legal problems.
3. Increasing awareness of the fruits of interdisciplinmy cooperation.
4. Relationship between law, economy and society.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
63. There is a clear cut division between the spheres of the legislature and the
judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which
one of the following propounds this doctrine?
(a) Analytical jurisprudence
(b) Historical jurisprudence
(c) Sociological jurisprudence
(d) Philosophical jurisprudence
64. Match List I (Jurists) with List II (View About Law Jurisprudence) and select
the correct answer using-the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Bentham 1. Concept of law
B. Austin 2. Pure theory of law
C. Kelsen 3. Limits of jurisprudence defined
D. Hart 4. Province of jurisprudence determined
5. Concept of living law
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 5 3 (b) 3 4 2 I
(c) I 4 2 2 (d) 3 2 5 I
65. Which of the following factors are responsible for the resurgence in favour
of natural law thinking in the twentieth century?
1. The decline in social and economic stability in the twentieth century.
2. The expansion in governmental activity.
3. Growth of weapons of destruction and policies of genocide.
4. Growing inclination of people towards religion.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
66. Balancing of social interests and the doctrines of social engineering is the
greatest contribution to sociological school. This is attributed to whom?
(a) Duguit (b) Roscoe Pound
(c) Savigny (d) Jhering
67. In India, which one of the following is the real guiding factor for the State to
meet social needs and for the establishment of new social order?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble of the Constitution
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Distribution of Powers
68. Eugen Ehrlich is a well-known jurist of sociological school of jurisprudence.
Which one of the following statements may not be attributed to the theory
propounded by him?
(a) Law is derived from social facts
(b) Law depends on social compulsion
(c) There is a "living law" underlying the formal rules of the legal system
(d) State law has significant influence on shaping and development of living law
69. Why is the expiatory theory of punishment obsolete now?
(a) It does not empower the State to impose punishment
(b) It is incapable to reform the wrong doer
(c) It is based on moral doctrines
(d) It enlarges the limits of jurisprudence
70. Who among the following divided the Sources of law into formal Sources
and material sources?
(a) Allen (b) Keetom
(c) Salmond (d) Gray
71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Supreme legislation I. Law based on discretion of the authority
B. Executive legislation 2. Law enacted by authority other than legislature
C. Delegated legislation 3. Law enacted by the legislature
D. Conditional legislation 4. Ordinance issued by the President/ Governor.
5. Law made by Judges while deciding the case
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 I (b) 2 I 5 4
(c) 3 I 2 4 (d) 2 4 5 1
What do Rights in re aliena mean?
72.
(a) Rights in the things of others
(b) Rights in one's Own things
(c) Rights relating to property
(d) Rights to receive damages
73. A borrowed a sum of Rs. 5,000/- from B, which he did not repay for a period
of three years. Now, which one of the following rights does B have against A?
(a) Perfect right (b) Imperfect right
(c) Proprietary right (d) None of the above
74. Who among the following propounded the theory of possession which lays
stress not on animus, but on de facto control?
(a) Salmond (b) PoIlock
(c) Holmes (d) Jhering
Which one out of the following statements is not correct with reference to
75.
Savigny's the ray of Volksgeist?
(a) Law cannot be universal or general in character
(b) Law is found and not made
(c) Law grows with the growth and strengthens with the strength of people
(d) Law is an instrument of social change and social reform
76. Ownership without possession can be termed as which one of the following?
(a) No ownership (b) Quasi ownership
(c) Incomplete ownership (d) Non-corporeal ownership
77. Which of the following is an element of Jhering theory of possession?
(a) Overemphasis on the element of animus
(b) Equal emphasis on the element of animus and corpus
(c) Owner like appearance in relation to a thing
(d) Immediate physical Power to exclude any foreign agency
78. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor,
(a) when it comes to the knowledge of the acceptor
(b) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
(c) when it comes to the knowledge of both the proposer and acceptor
(d) even when it does not necessarily come to knowledge of anybody
79. A manufacturer of ginger beer had sold to a retailer bottles of ginger beer
in opaque bottles. The retailer sold one such bottle to A who gave it to his
girl friend which contained the decomposed ramains of a dead snail. The
lady alleged that she became seriously ill on consuming a portion of the
contents from the said bottle. Which one of the following conclusions is
correct as to the liability in law of torts?.
(a) The manufacturer of the ginger beer shall be liable for negligence
(b) The manufacturer is not liable at all
(c) The retailer will be liable to the lady as he sold the bottle
(d) The lady is not entitled to damages due to her contributory negligence
80. Match List I (Rules/maxjms) with List II (Cases) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the Lists:
List II
List I
1. Davies v. Mann
A. Neighbour Principl
2. Byrne v. Boadle
B. Last Opportunity Rule
3. Mathews v. London Street
C. Res ipsa loquitur
Tramways Co.
4. Donoghue v. Stevenson
D. Doctrine of Identification
5. Ashby v. White
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 .5 4 (b) 4 I 2 3
(c) 4 2 .5 3 (d) 3 I 2 4
81. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India give a
ruling that sovereign immunity of the State is subject to the fundamental
rights?
(a) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati
(b) Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan
(c) Kasturi Lal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of U.P.
(d) People's Union for Democratic Rights v. State of Bihar
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
82.
(a) The principle of master's liability for the acts of a servant is based on the
dochine of respondent superior
(b) The rule of master's liability for the acts of the servant is based on the maxim
qui facit per alium facit per se
(c) Master's liability for the torts of his servant is absolute and it is immaterial
whether the tort was committed in the course of his employment or not
(d) The rule of master's liability for the act of the servant is based on the capacity
to pay; in most of the cases, servant is not financially in good position to pay
the damages.
83. Where does vicarious liability generally arise from? (a) A contract of service
(b) A contract for service
(c) A contract of service as well as a contract for service
(d) A wrongful act of the master ,
84. An army truck driven by a army driver while going to leave army jawans on
the station for enabling them to catch their train for proceeding to their
home town, hit a pedestrian and killed him due to rash and negligent
driving.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) In this case vicarious liability is to be imposed on the Government of India
(b) In this case immunity from liability would be claimed under the defence of
sovereign functions of the State
(c) In this case no liability will be imposed under the defence of inevitable
accident
(d) In this case both Government of India and the driver; personally would be
liable
85. C, a stranger'blocked the water pipes of a wash-basin and opened the tap.
The wash-basin was otherwise in the control of the defendant B. The
overflowing water damaged the plaintiff's goods. Thereupon the plaintiff
filed a suit for damages against the defendant B. C was not made a party.
In the aforesaid suit which one of the following conclusions is correct? I
(a) The defendant was liable for damages to the plaintiff; on the basis of rule of
strict liability
(b) The defendant was not liable for damages
(c) The stranger C will have to pay damages
(d) The plaintiff's suit will be decreed in his favour
86. Due to the collapse of the clock-tower situated opposite the town hall in main
bazaar of a city, a number of persons died. The clock-tower belonged to the
Municipal Corporation of the city and was exclusively under its control. It
was 60 years old but the normal life of the structure of the building which
had fallen could be 40 to 45 years having regard to the kind of material used.
Mrs. X whose husband died due to the collapse of the clock-tower filed the
suit for damages against the Municipal Corporation.
Which one of the following maxims is applicable in the aforesaid case?
(a) Damnum sine injuria (b) Injuria sine damno
(c) Res ipsa loquitur (d) Volenti non fit injuria
87. Section 300 of the IPC speaks of situations in which if a murder is
committed, then it is treated as 'culpable homicide not amounting to
murder'. Which one of the following situations is not covered under S. 300,
IPC?
(a) Exercise of the right of private defence
(b) Exercise of legal powers
(c) Exercise of legal rights
(d) Sudden fight
88. The defendants by digging a coalpit in the land intercepted the water which
affected the plaintiff's well at a distance of about one mile. The plaintiff
brought a suit for damages against the defendants.
Which one of the following maxims is applicable in the aforesaid case?
(a) Damnum sine injuria (b) Injuria sine damno
(c) Res ipsa loquitur (d) Volenti non fit injuria
89. Who gave the 'Pigeon-hole' theory in defining tort?
(a) Austin (b) Heuston
(c) Salmond (d) Winfield
Which two of the following rights do not find place in the International
90.
Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights?
1. Right to work.
2. Right to adequate food.
3. Right to self determination.
4. Right to privacy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) I and 4
91. Which two of the following rights do not take place in the International
Covenant on Civil & Political Rights?
1. Right to leave any country including his own and to return to his country.
2. Protection against torture and other forms of cruel and inhuman or degrading
treatment or punishment.
3. Right to move the International Court of Justice.
4. Right to be a member of the U.N.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) I and 4 (d) 2 and 4
92. Which one of the following statements does occur in Article 1 of the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
(a) All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights
(b) They are endowed with reason and conscience
(c) They should always live together peacefully
(d) They should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood
93. Consider the following statements:
I. Jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice is voluntary and obligatory.
2. Jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice can be imposed on Member-
Nation of the U.N.
3. General Assembly and Security Council may refer a matter to International
Court of Justice for advice.
4. International Court of Justice is a court of appeal from Supreme COUl1s of
Member-Nations.
Which of the two from the above statements are correct?
(a) I and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) I and 4
94. A, Band C jointly promise to pay Rs. 300 to P. who files a suit to recover the
amount.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) P can sue each individually for their respective shares
(b) P can sue A for the recovery of Rs. 100 once
(c) Since A, Band C are joint promisors, P can recover the amount from anyone
of them
(d) P must make all the three parties to the suit
95. A makes a contract with B to buy his house for Rs. 50,000 if he is able to
secure a bank loan for that amount. The contract is
(a) Void for vagueness (b) wagering contract
(c) Contingent contract (d) Voidable contract
96. A wagering agreement in India is declared by the Contract Act as
(a) Illegal and void
(b) Void but not illegal
(c) Voidable at the option of the aggrieved party
(d) Immoral
97. Agreements which are in the nature of bets and gambling are called
(a) Invalid agreements (b) Voidable contracts
(c) Contingent contracts (d) Wagering agreements
98. A Magistrate in making a report to the superior casts an imputation on the
character of a person Z in good faith and for public good.
Which of the following defences is most appropriate?
(a) Justification (b) Fair comment
(c) Absolute privilege (d) Qualified privilege
99. What can a catalogue of books listing price of each book and specifying the
place where the listed books are available be termed as?
(a) An offer
(b) An obligation to sell book
(c) An invitation to offer
(d) A promise to make available the books at the listed place
100. Unlawful detaining or threatening to detain any property with the intention
of causing any person to enter into an agreement would amount to which one
of the following?
(a) Unlawful detention (b) Duress
(c) Undue influence (d) Coercion
101. A contract which is vitiated by undue influence is declared as which one of
the following by the Indian 1 Contract Act?
(a) Invalid (b) Void
(c) Illegal (d) Voidable
102. Consider the following :
1. Active concealment of fact.
2. Promise made without any intention of performing it.
3. Breach of duty which gains an advantage to the person committing it.
4. Inducing mistake as to subject matter.
Which of the above amount to fraud?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) I and 4
103. A minor enters into agreement representing himself to be a major.
Consider the following statements:
1. Minor commits fraud if the other party does not have personal knowledge of
his age.
2. Such agreement is enforceable.
3. The doctrine of estoppel does not apply in minor's case.
4. Other party is entitled to get back the benefit passed to minor, if innocent
about his age.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
104. Which one of the following statements about general offer is correct?
(a) The general offer should he made to the specified persons
(b) The general offer does not require any consideration
(c) The general offer does not work without the support of public at large
(d) The general offer prescribes some condition to be fulfilled.
105. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists:
List I D. Agreement in restraint of
legal proceedings
A. Promises forming consideration of
each other List II
B. Relations resembling those created 1. Commercial Impossibility
by contract 2. Void agreement
C. Non-performance of contract due 3. Reciprocal promises
to strike of employees 4. Quasi-contract
5. Void contract
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 I 2 (h) I 2 3 5
(c) 3 2 I 5 (d) 1 4 3 2
106 Match List I (Content) with List II (Concept) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Free consent making agreement void 1. Undue influence
B. Voidable contract requiring some 2. Consideration
relationship between the parties 3. Quasi-contract
C. At the desire of promisor 4. Fraud
D. Making payment on behalf of other to 5. Mistake
protect the payer's own interest.
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 5 (b) 5 2 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 5 (d) 5 1 2 3
107. Consider the following statements:
1. General offer requires the communication of acceptance.
2. All contracts are agreements.
3. All agreements are contracts.
4. All illegal agreements are void agreements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 4 (b) I, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4
108. Which one of the following is not included in the UN Charter as an objective
of the United Nations?
(a) To protect the sovereignty of the member states
(b) To avoid war as a means for settlement of international disputes
(c) Development of human personality
(d) To ensure respect for international obligations arising from treaties and other
forms of international law
109. Consider the following statements:
The Economic and Social Council of the U.N.
I. may prepare draft conventions for submission to the General Assembly on
subjects falling within its competence.
2. may call international conferences on matters falling within its competence.
3. may appoint the members of Human Rights Committee.
4. may make recommendations for promoting respect for and observance of
human rights and fundamental freedoms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) I, 2 and 4
110. Which one of the following statements is correct?
De facto recognition of a foreign government
(a) is as conclusively binding, while it lasts, as de jure recognition
(b) is conclusive .
(c) is always equal to de jure recognition
(d) has no legal effects
111. What is an act of withholding of recognition to new territorial titles or
territorial changes brought out by use of force or any other act of doubtful
character depriving the rightful claimant thereto, commonly called?
(a) Estrada Doctrine (b) Stimpsons Doctrine
(c) Calvo Doctrine (d) Drago Doctrine
112. Arrange the following sources of international law in the preferential
sequence in which they are applied by International Court of Justice while
deciding such disputes as are submitted to it:
I. General international convention.
2. General principles of law recognised by civilized nations.
3. International customs.
4. Judicial decisions of international tribunals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I - 2 - 3 - 4 (b) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1
(c) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 (d) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1
113. Universal respect for, and observance of Human Rights and Fundamental
Freedoms for all without distinction as to race, sex, language or religion.
Which one of the following documents contains the above?
(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(b) UN Charter
(c) European Covenant on Human Rights & Fundamental Freedoms
(d) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
114. Which one of the following is not a source of international law?
(a) Constitutions of sovereign States
(b) Treaties
(c) International conventions
(d) International customs and practices
115. The Amendment in Article 31 (c) which gave precedence to all Directive
Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights was declared ultra vires
and void, in which one of the following cases?
(a) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(b) N. K. Rai v. Union of India
(c) Waman Rao v. Union of India
(d) Sanjeev Coke Manufacturing Co. v. Bharat Coking Coal Ltd.
116. In which one of the following cases, did the Supreme Court rule that the
principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of
compensation for violation of Fundamental Rights?
(a) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati
(b) Kasturi Lal v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India
(d) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
117. The First Amendment to the Constitution made in 1951, made changes in
relation to which of the following provisions?
1. Special provisions for .advancement of socially and educationally backward
classes.
2. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule.
3. Saving of certain laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles.
4. Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates. Select the correct answer
using the code given below:
(a) I, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
118. Which one of the following statements is correct?
When the President issues a Proclamation of Emergency
(a) all the Fundamental Rights are automatically suspended
(b) only Article 19 is automatically suspended. The enforcement of all other
Fundamental Rights can be suspended by an order of the President
(c) only Article 19 is automatically suspended. The enforcement of all other
Fundamental Rights except Articles 20 and 21 can be suspended by an order
of the President
(d) Article 19 can be suspended. Other Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended
119. In which List is the subject of Preventive Detention enumerated?
(a) The Union List (b) The Concurrent List
(c) The State List (d) None of the above
120. Which of the following are the matters covered under List I of Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. Foreign loans.
2. Atomic energy.
3. Insurance.
4. Public health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) I and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (d)
26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (d)
36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (b)
56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (a)
66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c)
71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (d)
76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (b). 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (b)
86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c)
96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (d)
101 (d) 102. (a) 103. (b) 104. (d) 105. (a)
106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (d) 110. (a)
I11. (b) 112. (c) 113. (d) 114. (a) 115. (a)
116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
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AKHAND PRATAP SINGH
