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C.S.E � MEDICAL SCIENCE �
2005
(PRELIMINARY)
Time Allowed: 2 hours Maximum Marks
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A D V E R T I S E M E N T
1. Consider the following
statements:
The human heart has
1. the opening of coronary
sinus in the right atrium.
2. its SA Node located just
above the opening of coronary sinus.
3. its AV Node located in
the atrio-ventricular septum. Which of the statements
given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The paralysis of which
one of the following causes lurching gait?
(a) Adductor muscles
(b) Gluteus maximus
(c) Ilio-psoas
(d) Gluteus medius et minim
us .
3. With reference to left
kidney, which one of the following statements not
correct?
(a) It is surrounded by the
renal fascia which also encloses the left supra-renal
gland
(b) It has five vascular
segments
(c) It is related
anteriorly to the fourth part of the duodenum
(d) It drains into the
lateral aortic lymph nodes
4. Which of the following
sturctures does not pass through lieno-renal
ligament?
(a) Splenic artery (b)
Splenic vein
(c) Short gastric arteries
(d) Tail of pancreas
5. Match List-I (Arteries
supplying stomach) with ListII (Arteries of origin)
and select the correct
answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Left Gastric 1. Coeliac
artery
B. Right Gastric 2. Splenic
artery
C. Left Gastroepiploic 3.
Gastro-duodenal artery
D. Right Gastroepiploic 4.
Common Hepatic artery
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
6. The root of the right
lung does not lie behind which one of the following?
(a) Right atrium (b) Right
Vagus
(c) Superior vena cava (d)
Phrenic nerve
7. Which one of the
following is the most important support of the uterus?
(a) Broad ligament
(b) Round ligament of the
uterus
(c) Levator ani muscle
(d) Pubocervical ligament .
8. The germ cells are
derived from
(a) yolk sac endoderm (b)
amnion
(c) germinal epithelium of
gonad (d) allantois
9. Regarding the adrenal
gland, which following statement is correct?
(a) It contains
pre-ganglionic neurons
(b) Its medulla synthesizes
corticoids
(c) It is drained by three
veins
(d) It contains chromaffin
cells
10. Match List-I
(Arteries supplying brain) with List-II (Syndrome or
Symptoms when affected)
and select the correct answer using the code given
below:
List-I
A. Anterior spinal artery
B. Posterior cerebral
artery
C. Recruitment branch of
the
anterior cerebral artery
D. Anterior inferior
cerebeller
artery
List-II
1. Isolated facial nerve
palsy
2. Lateral medullary
syndrome
3. Medical medullary
syndrome
4. Third and Fourth cranial
nerve palsy
5. Sixth, Seventh and
Eighth cranial
nerve palsy
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 5 (b) 3 4 1 5
(c) 3 5 1 4 (d) 1 5 2 4
11. The ipsilateral
fibres of the optic nerve relay in which of the following layers
of lateral geniculate
body?
(a) 2, 3, 5 (b) 1, 4, 6
(c) 1, 4, 5 (d) 2, 3, 6
12. Through which part of
internal capsule does auditory pathway pass?
(a) Anterior limb (b)
Posterior limb
(c) Retro-lentiform part
(d) Sub-lentiform part
13. The secretomotor
fibres to the parotid gland reach via
(a) facial nerve (b)
glossopharyngeal nerve
(c) mandibular nerve (d)
vagus nerve
14. Consider the
following developmental zones seen in intracartilaginous bone
formation in long and
short bones:
1. Zone of maturation and
hypertrophy
2. Zone of proliferation
and multiplication
3. Zone of cartilage
calcification
4. Zone of cartilage
removal and bone deposition
What is the correct
sequence of the above zones from the distal ends?
(a) 1 - 2 - 3 � 4 (b) 2 - I
- 3 � 4
(c) 2 - 1 - 4 � 3 (d) 1 - 4
- 3 - 2
15. Which one of the
following sensory receptors is found in epidermis?
(a) Merkel disc (b)
Meissner's corpuscles
(c) Ruffini ending (d)
Pacinian corpuscles
16. Which one of the
following cells of germinal epithelium of testis devides by
meiosis?
(a) Type A spermatogonium
(b) Primary spermatocyte
(c) Spermatid
(d) Secondary spermatocyte
17. The body of the
vertebra develops from
(a) notochord (b) primitive
streak
(c) one sclerotome
(d) cephalic and caudal
halves of adjacent sclerotomes
18. Which of the
following does not contribute to the development of laryngeal
cartilages?
(a) Tuberculum impar
(b) Mesenchyme derived from
neural crest
(c) Cartilages of fourth to
sixth pairs of pharyngeal arches
(d) Hypobranchial eminence
19. The diaphragm is
formed from the following except
(a) septum transversum
(b) paraxial mesoderm
(c) pleuroperitoneal
membranes
(d) dorsal mesentery of
oesphagus
20. Support of the
muscles against gravity is a function of which one of the
following?
(a) Reticular nuclei (b)
Hypothalamus
(c) Supplementary motor
area (d) Amygdala
21. The type of synaptic
inhibition seen in cerebellum is
(a) pre-synaptic (b)
post-synaptic
(c) feed forward (d)
Renshaw cell
22. The characteristic
brown-red colour of faeces is due to the presence of
(a) biliverdin (b)
urobilinogen
(c) stercobilin (d)
bilirubin
23. Consider the
following:
1. Electrocardiogram
2. Phonocardiogram
3. Jugular venous pulse
tracing
4. Carotid pulse tracing
Which of the above must be
recorded simultaneously in order to calculate the
duration of total
electromechanical systole?
(a) I and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
24. Cerebral vasodilation
is not brought about by
(a) an
increase in Pco2
(b) a
decrease in PO2 below 30 mm Hg
(c) an increase in lactic
acid
(d) a
decrease in PO2 in the range of 30-60 mm Hg
25. The stimulation of
which of the following causes hyperventilation at high
altitude?
(a) Peripheral
chemoreceptors
(b) Vagal afferents
(c) Central chemoreceptors
(d) Proprioceptors
26. Section of the vagus
nerve results in
(a) increased rate of
respiration
(b) decreased depth of
respiration
(c) irregular breathing
patterns
(d) increase in
breath-holding time
27. Regarding prothrombin
time, which one of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) It gives an indication
of the total quality of prothrombin in the blood sample
(b) It requires the
presence of thromboplastin and calcium ions
(c) The reaction involves
the tissue thromboplastin activation of prothrombin to
thrombin
(d) It is a measure of rate
of reaction from prothrombin to fibrin formation
28. Which one of the
following substances, actively transported by the tubular
cells, has the highest
Tubular Transport Maximum?
(a) Plasma protein (b)
Haemoglobin
(c) Glucose (d) Sodium
29. Blood samples for
glucose estimation are collected in fluoride tubes as
fluoride prevents
glycolysis by inhibiting.
(a) glucokinase (b)
phosphofructokinase
(c) aldolase (d) enolase
30. A molecule used to
detect the presence of specific fragment 01 DNA or RNA
is known as
(a) Primosome (b) Probe
(c) Pseudogene (d) Signal
31. Consider the
following statements:
1. Plasmids are circular
double-stranded DNA seen inside bacteria.
2. Plasmids confer
antibiotic resistance to host bacteria.
3. Plasmids are used as
vectors in recombinant DNA technology.
Which of the statements
given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
"
32. The process of
programmed genedirected cell death characterised by cellshrinkage,
nuclear condensation and
fragmentation is known as
(a) Necrosis (b)
Chromatolysis
(c) Pyknosis (d) Apoptosis
33. During protein
biosynthesis, high energy bonds are not utilized in which one
of the following steps?
(a) Formation of aminoacyl
tRNA
(b) Binding of aminoacyl
tRNA to A site of ribosome
(c) Formation of peptide
bond (peptidyl transferase step)
(d) Translocation step
34. Which of the
following is not a characteristic of Hemoglobin S?
(a) Red cells are sickle
shaped
(b)
Insoluble in low O2 tension
(c) Abnormal heme portion
(d) Normal alpha chain but
abnormal beta chain
35. The plasma pH is
increased in which of the following situations?
(a) During renal shutdown
(b) During exercise
(c) When a high protein
diet is taken
(d) During breath holding
36. The Wobble hypothesis
refers to the less stringent base-pairing specificity of the
(a) 5' end base of the
codon (b) 5' end base of the anticodon
(c) 3' end base of the
anticodon (d) middle base of the anticodon
37. Which of the
following factors in bile juice is responsible for preventing the
precipitation of
cholesterol and formation of gall stones?
(a) High alkaline condition
(b) High concentration of bicarbonates
(c) Bile salts (d) Bile
pigments
38. Which one of the
following events does not contribute to the movement of
fluid from vascular
compartment to extra-vascular compartment during
acute inflammation?
(a) Increased capillary
permeability,
(b) Increased osmotic
pressure of plasma protein
(c) Increased hydrostatic
pressure of the blood
(d) Increased osmotic
pressure of the interstitial fluid
39. Match List-I
(Immunological markers in serum of hepatitis-B infection)
with List-II
(Significance of the markers) and select the correct answer using
the code given below the
Lists:
List - I
A. Persistence of HBe Ag
beyond 10
weeks
B. Seroconversion from HBe
Ag to
anti-HBe during acute stage
C. High titre of Ig M
anti-HBc persists for four to six months
D. Elevated level of IgG
anti-HBc in
acute stage
List - II
1. Infection in the remote
past
2. Acute recent infection
3. Chronic liver disease
4. Resolution of disease
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 1 4 2 3
40. Match' List-I (Spread
of infection) with (Infective disease) and select - the
correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Inhalation I.
Hepatitis-E virus infection
B. Ingestion 2. Herpes
simplex virus infection
C. Body contact 3.
Hepatitis-C virus infection
D. Blood borne 4. Mumps
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3
41. Cleavage of IgG
molecule by papain gives rise to
(a) one Fe
fragment and two Fab fragments
(b) one Fc
fragment and four Fab fragments
(c) two Fc
fragments and four Fab fragments
(d) two Fc
fragments and two Fab fragments
42. Carcinogenesis
attributed to the formation of pyramidine dimers in DNA
commonly occurs following
exposure to
(a) UV radiation (b)
infra-red radiation
(c) viral oncogenes (d)
chemical carcinogens
43. The mononuclear
macrophage system of bone is
(a) osteoclast (b)
osteoblast
(c) osteocyte (d)
osteophyte
44. Match List-I
(Cytokines) with List-II (Effects) and select the correct answer
using the code given
below the Lists:
List-I
A. IL-l and 6
B. TNF- alpha
C. IL-2 and 4
D. G-CSF
List-II
1. Stimulate �
haematopoisis
2. Activate inflammatory
cells
3. Regulate lymphocytic
growth and differentiation
4. Mediate natural immunity
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
45. Which one of the
following immunoglobulins constitutes the antigen-binding
component of B-cell
receptor?
(a) IgA (b) IgD
(c) IgM (d) IgG
46. Consider the
following findings:
1. Granuloma with central
caseation
2. Langhans and foreign
body giant cells
3. Zone of lymphocytic
infiltration around the mass of epitheloid cells and
giant cells
4. Lack of reticulum
between the cells on special stain
Which of the above findings
differentiate tuberculous lymph node from
sarcoidosis of lymph node?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and
4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
47. In the context of
immune system, what is the correct sequence of activation
of the components of the
complement in the classical pathway?
(a) CI-C4-C2-C3-C5 (a)
CI-C2-;-C5-C4-C3
(a) CI-C5-C4-C2-C3 (a)
C3-CI-C2-C4-C5
48. Which of the
following does cholera toxin have?
(a) Five 'B' subunits and
one �A� subunit
(b) Four 'B' subunits and
one �A� subunit
(c) Three 'B' subunits and
two �A� subunits
(d) Two 'B' subunits and
two �A� subunits
49. Consider the
following statements:
T-cell function can be
assessed by
1. complement fixation
tests.
2. intradermal test.
3. tube agglutination
tests.
4. lymphocyte proliferation
test.
Which of the statements
given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) I and 4
50. Malarial relapse is
seen in
(a) P. falciparum and P.
vivax
(b) P. falciparum and P.
malariae
(c) P. ovale and P.
malariae
(d) P. vivax and P. ovale
51. Match List-I
(Autoimmune disease) with List-II (Self antigen) and select the
correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List-I
A. Pernicious anaemia
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Goodpasture's syndrome.
List-II
1. Thyroglobulin
2. Gamma globulin
3. Gastric parietal cells
4. Basement membrane
5. Central nervous system
myelin
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 5 2 3 (b) 3 1 5 4
(c) 4 1 5 3 (d) 3 5 2 4
52. Collagen deficiency
due to decreased hydroxylation of proline and lysine
occurs due to the
deficiency of which one of the following?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin K
53. The drug of choice to
eliminate amoebic luminal cysts is
(a) Metronidazole (b)
Tinidazole
(c) Diloxanide furoate (d)
Chloroquine
54. The venom of which
one of the following snakes is known to be neurotoxic?
(a) Russell�s viper. (b)
Pit viper
(c) Krait (d) Sea snake
55. Which one of the
following statements is not correct?
(a) Cerebral blood flow is
approximately 75 ml per 100 gm per minute in the
gray matter
(b) Cerebral oxygen
consumption is 3.5 ml per 100 gm per minute
(c) Cerebral glucose
consumption is 5 mg per 100 gm per minute
(d) The EEG becomes
invariably abnormal when cerebral blood flow diminishes
to 35 ml per 100 gm per
minute
56. Match List-I
(Pathogen) with List-II (Medium for cultivation) and select the
correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List-I
A. Salmonella typhimurium
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
List-II
1. Lowenstein Jensen medium
2. Chocolate agar
3. Mannitol salt agar
4. TCBS agar
5. Wilson and Blair's
medium
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 3 (b) 2 5 4 1
(c) 5 4 2 1 (d) 2 5 4 3
57. A comatosed patient
due to a large intracerebral bleed is likely to benefit
from the following except
(a) mannitol intravenously
(b) intravenous magnesium
sulphate
(c) dexamethasone
intravenously
(d) hyperventilation
58. Which one of the
following findings is not associated with an acute attack of
bronchial asthma?
(a) Forced expiratory
volume in one, second decreases
(b) Maximal expiratory flow
rate decreases
(c) Peak expiratory flow
rate decreases
(d) Pulsus
paradoxus appears when FEV1 is less than 35% of the predicted value
59. Which one of the
following statements about management of Status
Epilepticus is not
correct?
(a) Maintain airway and
start Benzodiazepines group drug
(b) Start bolus dose
Dilantin Sodium
(c) If the patient is on
antiepileptic drugs, measure the serum level of drugs
(d) Barbiturate must be
avoided as it causes respiratory depression
60. Which one of the
following is not included in the treatment of hyperkalemia
in acute renal failure?
(a) IV calcium gluconate
(b) Dextrose with insulin
infusion
(c) Blood transfusion
(d) IV sodium bicarbonate
61. In the jugular venous
pulse 'a' waves larger than 'v' waves are seen in
(a) tricuspid stenosis (b)
tricuspid incompetence
(c) patent ductus
arteriosus (d) aortic stenosis
62. According to the
Welcome classification, a child is said to have kwashiorkor
when his
(a) weight is 60-80% of
normal without edema
(b) weight is 60-80% of
normal with edema
(c) weight is less than 60%
of normal without edema
(d) weight is less than 60%
of normal with edema
63. Match List-I
(Conditions) with List-II (Drugs used) and select the correct
answer using the code
given below the Lists:
List-I
A. Chronic stable angina
B. Unstable angina
C. Non ST elevation
myocardial
infarction
D. ST elevation myocardial
infarction
List-II
1. Clopidogrel
2. gPlIb / IIIa receptor
inhibitor
3. Heparin
4. Streptokinase
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
64. With reference to
'aspiration pneumonia' which one of the following
statements is not
correct?
(a) It may occur with
inhaled chemical fumes and vapors
(b) Aspiration pneumonitis
may damage alveolar permeability for albumin
(c) It may respond
dramatically to corticosteroids
(d) It may occur in
progressive systemic sclerosis
65. Long-term secondary
prevention following myocardial infarction is
recommended with which
one of the following drugs?
(a) Antiplatelet drugs (b)
Nitrates
(c) Cardorone (d) Calcium
channel antagonist
66. Which one of the
following is not correct with regard to amoebic liver
abscess?
(a) Its usual occurrence is
in the right lobe
(b) Patient is toxic
(c) Surgical drainage is
always indicated
(d) Extension of abscess
from liver to pericardium is the most dreaded
complication
67. Match List-I
(Clinical signs) with List-II (Clinical conditions) and select the
correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List-I
A. Roth spot
B. Austin Flint murmur
C. Differential cyanosis
D. Carey Coombs murmur
List-II
1. Acute rheumatic fever
2. Subacute bacterial
endocarditis
3. Aortic incompetence
4. Patent Ductus with
reversal of shunt
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 1 3 4 2
68. With reference to the
cirrhosis of liver, which one of the following
statements is not
correct?
(a) Portal hypertension is
considered to be present when wedge hepatic vein
pressure is 5 mm Hg higher
than inferior vena cava pressure
(b) Parotid gland
enlargement may be a feature in patients
(c) Hyperbilirubinaemia is
a common finding in alcoholic cirrhosis
(d) Liver Js usually
enlarged and macro nodular
69. Which of the
following is not a characteristic of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
(a) Severe peptic
ulceration
(b) Hyperchlorhydria
(c) Diarrhoea and
steatorrhea
(d) Hypergastrinemia in
response to intravenous secretin is not seen in this
syndrome
70. Regarding membranous
glomerulonephritis, which of the following is not
correct?
(a) Thickening of the
basement membranes is usually present
(b) A marked increase in
cellular infiltrate within the glomerulus is usually
present
(c) This entity is most
common in adults
(d) Significant proteinuria
is usually present
71. Which of the
following is a characteristic of poliomyelitis?
(a) Initial febrile illness
followed by development of asymmetrical paralysis
(b) Symmetrical muscle
weakness with frequent paraesthesia but normal reflexes
(c) Ascending motor
paralysis with preservation of reflexes and sensation
(d) Pain in the affected
limb with sensorimotor deficit
72. Which one of the
following is not a, characteristic of schizophrenia?
(a) Delusion of grandeur
(b) Auditory hallucination
(c) Anxiety
(d) Delusion of passivity
73. Which one of the
following drugs can cause cholestatic hepatitis?
(a) Isoniazid (b)
Ketoconazole
(c) Erythromycin estolate
(d) Carbon tetrachloride
74. Match List-I (Blood
substitutes) with List-II (Indications) and select the
correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Cryoprecipitate 1.
Volume expansion
B. Fresh whole blood. 2.
Acute haemorrhage
C. Albumin 3. Replacement
of clotting factors
D. Fresh frozen plasma 4.
Fibrinogen deficiency
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 I 4 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 1 2 3
75. Avascular necrosis
can occur in fractures of the following bones
except
(a) talus (b) lunate
(c) scaphoid (d) triquetrum
76. Which one of the
following statements regarding glutaraldehyde is not
correct?
(a) It is used to disinfect
endoscopes
(b) The concentration of
its solution used for disinfection is 4%
(c) It is effective at pH
7.5 to 8.5
(d) It kills both
gram-positive and gram-negative organisms; and viruses
including hepatitis Band
HIV
77. The complications of
total parenteral nutrition include the following
expect
(a) hypermagnesemia (b)
hypokalemia
(c) hyperosmolar
dehydration (d) hypophosphatemia
78. Match List-I (Type of
fracture) with List-II (Occurrence) and select the
correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List-I
A Compression fracture
B. Green-stick fracture
C. Avulsion fracture
D. March fracture
List-II
I. Common in small bones
with strong muscles
2. Common in elderly and
osteoporotic bones
3. Common in children and
one cortex is intact
4. Common in athletes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 I 2
79. Regarding the
management of fracture shaft of femur, which" one of the
following statements is
not correct?
(a) Infants are best
treated by traction applied by Gallow�s splint
(b) Children are treated by
skin traction in a Thomas splint .
(c) In adults it is treated
by internal fixation with intramedullary Kuntscher nail
(d) Elderly patients are
managed by internal fixation with sliding compression
80. Eradicaiton of H.
pylori has been proved to be beneficial in the following
conditions
except
(a) duodenal ulcer
(b) gastric ulcer
(c) low grade MALT lymphoma
(d) hypertrophic gastritis
81. The following methods
are used to lower the intracranial pressure in
patients with head injury
except
(a) hyperventilation
(b) administration of
Mannitol
(c) hypothermia
(d) administration of
Nifedipine
82. Clinical
manifestations of bronchogenic carcinoma include the following
except
(a) hoarseness of voice due
to involvement of left recurrent laryngeal nerve
(b) Horner's syndrome
(c) diaphragmati palsy due
to infiltration of phrenic nerve
(d) gastroparesis due to
vagal involvement
83. Which one of the
following is a muscle-splitting incision?
(a) Kocher's (b)
Rutherford-Morris
(c) Pfannenstiel (d) Lanz
84. Regarding prostatic
venous plexus, which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) It lies between the
false capsule and true anatomical capsule
(b) It lies between
prostatic urethra and false capsule
(c) It lies between the
anatomical capsule and the prostatic sheath of endopelvic
fascia,
(d) It lies outside the
prostatic sheath of endopelvic fascia
85. A 4 x 4 cm NOMO
inflammatory carcinoma of breast is best managed by
(a) radical mastectomy
followed by radiotherapy
(b) neoadjuvant
chemotheraphy followed by surgery
(c) radiotherapy followed
by simple mastectomy
(d) simple mastectomy
followed by adjuvant chemotheraphy
86. During urethral
catheterisation in male patients, resistance is encountered at
the following sites
except
(a) base of navicular fossa
(b) mid-penile urethra
(c) urogenital diaphragm
(d) bulbomembranous
junction
87. Which one of ' the
following surgical procedures used in the treatment of
sigmoid volvulus has a
maximum incidence of recurrence?
(a) Exteriorisation
(b) Sigmoidopexy
(c) Extraperitonisation
(d) Resection of sigmoid
colon
88. Regarding the flow of
Cerebrospinal Fluid, which one of the following
sequences is correct?
(a) Lateral ventricle -
third ventricle - aqueduct of Sylvius - fourth ventricle
(b) Fourth ventricle -
third ventricle - aqueduct of Sylvius - lateral ventricle
(c) Lateral ventricle -
aqueduct of Sylvius � third ventricle - fourth ventricle
(d) Lateral ventricle -
third ventricle - fourth ventricle - aqueduct of Sylvius
89. Which one of the
following reagents is riot used as sclerosant in the
treatment of bleeding
varices?
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b)
Ethanolamine oleate
(c) Phenol (d) Sodium
morrhuate
90. Portal hypertension
secondary to splenic vein thrombosis is best treated by
(a) portacaval shunt
(b) splenorenal shunt
(c) oesophageal stapled
transection
(d) splenectomy and
devascuiarisation
91. To which one of the
following types of disorders does haemophilia belong?
(a) Autosomal dominant (b)
Autosomal recessive
(c) Recessive sex-linked
(d) Dominant sex-linked
92. Positive Mantoux test
indicates that the person
(a) is suffering from
tuberculosis
(b) is infected with M:
tuberculosis
(c) has extra-pulmonary
tuberculosis
(d) is suffering from
atypical mycobacteria
93. Duration of MDT
(Multi drug Therapy) to resolve paucibacillary leprosy is
(a) 6 months (b) 8 months
(c) 9 months (d) 12 months
94. In a case control
study, of association between
(a) relative risk (b)
absolute risk
(c) odds ratio (d)
proportionate ratio
95. Consider the
following:
1. Temporal Association
2. Strength of Association
3. Specificity of
Association
4. Sensitivity of
Association
Which of the above are
included in the criteria for the measure of the strength
risk factor and outcome is
judging causality between an agent and disease?
(a) I, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and
4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) I, 2 and
4
96. The relationship of
mean height of two groups of children is best studied by
(a) Student's t-test (b)
linear regression
(c) chi-square test (d)
test of proportions
97. Which one of the
following methods can most effectively control the
prevalence of Brugia
Malayan Filariasis?
(a) BHC spraying at the
rate of 2 g per sq. m surface on all structures in the area
(b) Application of one kg
of Paris green as 2% dust with soap stone per acre of
water surface
(c) Removal of Pistia and
other water hyacinth group of plants from water
courses
(d) Daily use of mosquito
repellent nets by all residents
98. Which one of the
following committees first recommended a Comprehensive
Health Care delivery
system for India?
(a) Bhore Committee
(b) Kartar Singh Committee
(c) Mudaliar Committee
(d) Srivastava Committee
99. Match List-I
(Disease) with List-II (Mode of transmission) and select the
correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Ascariasis l. Faeco-oral
route
B. Ankylostomiasis 2.
Per-cutaneous route
C. Dracunculiasis 3. Oral
route
D. Lymphatic filariasis 4.
Vector route
A B C D A B C D
(a) I 2 3 4 (b) I 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 I (d) 4 3 2 1
100. Which one of the
following organisms is the best indicator of faecal pollution
of water?
(a) Streptococcus faecalis
(b) Clostridium perfringens
(c) Salmonella enteritidis
(d) Escherichia coli
101. Disability-Adjusted
Life Year (DALY) expresses the
(a) extent of disability in
the population
(b) expectation of life
free of disability
(c) years of life,lost to
premature death
(d) lost years of life due
to premature death and disability
102. The prevalence rate
to be achieved to reach leprosy elimination level is
(a) 10 cases per 10,000
population
(b) 5 cases per 10,000
population
(c) less than I case per
10,000 population
(d) less that 1 case per
1,000 population
103. Match List-I
(Disease/Microorganism) with List-II (Status) and select the
correct answer using the.
code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Yellow fever 1. Endemic
B. Measles 2. Exotic
C. Hepatitis-A 3. Epornitic
D. Mycobacterium avium 4.
Epidemic
5. Opportunistic
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 4 2 3 I
(c) 2 4 1 5 (d) 4 2 I 5
104. The number of
abortions performed divided by the number of live births in
the same period is known
as
(a) abortion rate (b)
abortion incidence
(c) abortion prevalence (d)
abortion ratio
105. Consider the
following:
l. NET-EN (Nbrethisterone
Enantate)
2. DMPA (Depot Medroxy
Progesterone Acetate)
3. Mesigyna
4. Norplant
Which of the above are the
injectable contraceptives?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and
4
106. Which of the
following measurements indicates whether leprosy cases are
being detected early or
not?
(a) New case detection rate
(b) Proportion of children
among new cases.
(c) Proportion of new cases
with disability
(d) Prevalence rate of
disease
107. Diuresis produced by
alcohol is due to
(a) decreased tubular
reabsorption
(b) increased glomerular
filtration rate
(c) osmotic diuresis
(d) inhibition of ADH
secretion
108. Consider the
following statements:
1. There are 2,743
Community Health Centres in India.
2. One Community Health
Centre covers 80,000 to 1,20,000 population and
usually has 30 indoor beds.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d)
Neither 1 nor 2
109. The period of
infectivity in viral hepatitis-A is maximum
(a) up to 12 weeks after
the onset of jaundice
(b) during first 4 weeks
after the onset of jaundice
(c) during one week after
the onset of jaundice
(d) during two weeks before
to one week after the onset of jaundice
110. In the rod photo
receptors, the pigment rhodopsin is present in.
(a) plasma membrane
(c) cytoplasm
(b) disk membrane
(d) endoplasmic reticulum
111. Consider the
following statements:
1. At present more than 550
District Blindness Control Societies are set up in
India.
2. At present only five
States have reached the level of leprosy elimination in
India.
Which of the following
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d)
Neither 1 nor 2
112. A relative paralysis
of voluntary activity during REM sleep is dependent on
(a) thalamus (b) cerebellum
(c) pons (d) locus ceruleus
Directions: The following
eight (8) items consist of two statements, one labelled as
�Assertion (a) ' and the
other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements
carefully and select the
answers to these items using the code given below;
(a) Both A and R are
individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are
individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is
false (d) A is false but R is true
113. Assertion (A) :
Jlering-Breuer
reflex has no role in the regulation of pulmonary
ventilations during quiet
breathing.
Reason (R) :
It is the load detection
reflex that adjusts the tidal volume of an
eupneic breathing.
114. Assertion (A) :
Malignant cells
are hyperchromatic.
Reason (R) :
Nuclei of malignant cells
contain an abundance of DNA
115. Assertion (R) :
Loeffler's
syndrome is a clinical manifestation of ascariasis.
Reason (R) :
Large amount of
immunoglobulin E (IgE) is released into the
circulation in Loeffler's
syndrome.
116. Assertion (R) :
Supracondylar
fracture of humerus leads to compartment
syndrome.
Reason (R) :
Supracondylar fracture is
associated with injury to brachial
artery.
117. Assertion (R) :
Prostaglandin E,
is used in the .medical treatment of Buerger's
disease.
Reason (R) :
Prostaglandin E, produces
maximal vasodilation and inhibits
platelet aggregation.
118. Assertion (R) :
Sub-capital
fracture femur is very common in elderly.
Reason (R) :
Elderly patients suffer
from osteoarthritis.
119. Assertion (R) :
In the lesion of
the facial nerve below the stylomastoid foramen,
there is a loss of taste in
the anterior two-third of the tongue.
Reason (R) :
The chorda tympani branch
of the facial nerve carries the taste
fibres for the anterior
two-third of the tongue.
120. Assertion (R) :
Tuberculoid
leprosy is associated with a heavy bacillary load.
Reason (R) :
Cell-mediated immune
response is intact with infiltration of
helper T-cells in the skin
of patients of tuberculoid leprosy.
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AKHAND PRATAP SINGH
